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lesya [120]
3 years ago
12

In this problem, we will explore how deepening the pipeline affects performance in two ways: faster clock cycle and increased st

alls due to data and control hazards. Assume that the original machine is a 5-stage pipeline with a 1 ns clock cycle. The second machine is a 12-stage pipeline with a 0.6 ns clock cycle. The 5-stage pipeline experiences a stall due to a data hazard every five instructions, whereas the 12-stage pipeline experiences three stalls every eight instructions. In addition, branches constitute 20% of the instructions, and the misprediction rate for both machines is 5%.
a. What is the speedup of the 12-stage pipeline over the 5-stage pipeline, taking into account only data hazards?

b. If the branch mispredict penalty for the first machine is 2 cycles but the second machine is 5 cycles, what are the CPIs of each, taking into account the stalls due to branch mispredictions?
Engineering
1 answer:
Nataliya [291]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a) the speed up is 1.45

b) the speed up is 1.42

Explanation:

Given

5 stage pipeline = 1 ns clock cycle

12 stage pipeline = 0.6 ns clock cycle

a) The speed up is

speed-upx_{pipeline} =\frac{CPI_{unpipelined} }{CPI_{pipelined} } (\frac{cycle-time_{unpipelined} }{cycle-time_{pipelined} } ) (eq. 1)

The CPIpipelined is

CPI_{pipelined} =CPI_{ideal} +average-stall-cycle/instructions (eq. 2)

The execution time is

execution-time=instruction*CPI_{pipelined} *cycle-time_{unpipelined} (eq. 3)

The CPI for 5-stage pipeline is

CPI = 6/5

cycle time = 1 s

The CPI for 12-stage pipeline is

CPI = 11/8

cycle time = 0.6 s

Replacing values in equation 1

speed-up_{pipeline} =\frac{I*\frac{6}{5}*1 }{I*\frac{11}{8}*0.6 } =\frac{1.2}{1.375*0.6} =1.45

b) The equation for CPI instruction in 5-stage is

CPI_{5} =CPI_{time} +instructions-of-5-stage*cycletime*number-of-cycles=\frac{6}{5} +(\frac{20}{100} )*0.05*2=1.22

For CPI instruction in 12-stage is

CPI_{12} =\frac{11}{8} +(\frac{20}{100} )*0.05*5=1.43

The speed up is using the equation 1

speed-up=\frac{1*1.22*1}{1*1.43*0.6} =1.42

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Svetllana [295]

Answer:

View Image

Explanation:

You didn't provide me a picture of the opamp.

I'm gonna assume that this is an ideal opamp, therefore the input impedance can be assumed to be ∞ . This basically implies that...

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  2. V₊ = V₋  , so whatever voltage is at the noninverting side will also be the voltage at the inverting side

Since no current is going into the + and - side of the opamp, then

i₁ = i₂

Since V₊ is connected to ground (0V) then V₋ must also be 0V.

V₊ = V₋  = 0

Use whatever method you want to solve for v_out and v_in then divide them. There's so many different ways of solving this circuit.

You didn't give me what the input voltage was so I can't give you the entire answer. I'll just give you the equations needed to plug in your values to get your answers.

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3 years ago
A slab-milling operation is performed on a 0.7 m long, 30 mm-wide cast-iron block with a feed of 0.25 mm/tooth and depth of cut
denis23 [38]

Answer:

a)  T_m=1.787min

b)  MRR=35259.7mm^3/min

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Cast-iron block Dimension:

Lengthl=0.7m=>700mm

Width w=30mm

FeedF=0.25mm/tooth

Depth dp=3mm

Diameter d=75mm

Number of cutting teeth n=8

Rotation speed N=200rpm

Generally the equation for Approach is mathematically given by

x=\sqrt{Dd-d^2}

X=\sqrt{75*3-3^2}

X=14.69mm

Therefore

Effective length is given as

L_e=Approach +object Length

L_e=700+14.69

L_e=714.69mm

a)

Generally the equation for Machine Time is mathematically given by

T_m=\frac{L_e}{F_m}

Where

F_m=F*n*N

F_m=0.25*8*200

F_m=400

Therefore

T_m=\frac{714.69}{400}

T_m=1.787min

b)

Generally the equation for Material Removal Rate. is mathematically given by

MRR=\frac{L*B*d}{t_m}

MRR=\frac{700*30*3}{1.787}

MRR=35259.7mm^3/min

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Determine the voltages at all nodes and the currents through all branches. Assume that the transistor B is 100,
iren [92.7K]

Answer:

The voltages of all nodes are, IE = 4.65 mA, IB =46.039μA,  IC=4.6039 mA, VB = 10v, VE =10.7, Vc =4.6039 v

Explanation:

Solution

Given that:

V+ = 20v

Re = 2kΩ

Rc = 1kΩ

Now we will amke use of the method KVL in the loop.

= - Ve + IE . Re + VEB + VB = 0

Thus

IE = V+ -VEB -VB/Re

Which gives us the following:

IE = 20-0.7 - 10/2k

= 9.3/2k

so, IE = 4.65 mA

IB = IE/β +1 = 4.65 m /101

Thus,

IB = 0.046039 mA

IB = 46.039μA

IC =βIB

Now,

IC = 100 * 0.046039

IC is 4.6039 mA

Now,

VB = 10v

VE = VB + VEB

= 10 +0.7 = 10.7 v

So,

Vc =Ic . Rc = 4.6039 * 1k

=4.6039 v

Finally, this is the table summary from calculations carried out.

Summary Table

Parameters          IE       IC           IB            VE       VB         Vc

Unit                     mA     mA          μA            V           V          V

Value                  4.65    4.6039   46.039    10.7      10     4.6039

4 0
3 years ago
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