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zimovet [89]
2 years ago
10

In unguided medium (free space), the electromagnetic (EM) signal wave spreads as it leaves the transmit antenna. Since the power

of the EM signal resides in the surface area of the wave front, signal power is described as signal power density (i.e., watts per area).
True

False

The spreading of an electromagnetic (EM) signal in an unguided medium such as air, weakens the EM signal therefore causing signal attenuation.

True

False
Engineering
1 answer:
natka813 [3]2 years ago
4 0
The real answer - for 1- true
you have to pay attention in class to actually learn this subject if you want to work in this workforce


second - false
there is no way that the Elecrtomagnetic signal can just cause awful signal attenuation.
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Consider uniaxial extension of a test specimen. It has gauge length L = 22 cm (the distance between where it is clamped in the t
Katena32 [7]

Answer:

A) 4800.6 N

B) 0.2255 mm/min

C) 8.6792 inches

Explanation:

Given data :

gauge Length = 22 cm = 220 mm

cross section diameter/thickness = 1.8 mm

young's modulus ( E ) = 205 GPa

Ultimate tensile strength ( σu ) = 420MPa

Time = 2 mins

A) what force would fracture the specimen

σU = Ff /A

where A (area) = thickness * width ( unknown )  hence we assume a width of 6.35 mm

Ff = σU × A =  420 * 1.8 * 6.35 = 4800.6 N

B) calculate the strain rate

Ultimate tensile strength ( σU ) = εE

ε = σU / E = 420/205000 = 0.00205

also  ε ​​​​​​ =  ΔL / Li = ( Lf - Li) / Li = (Lf / Li) - 1

 therefore  ε ​​​​​​ + 1 = (Lf / Li) = 1 + 0.00205 = 1.00205

 Li = gauge length = 220 mm

Hence :  Lf = 1.00205 × gauge length =  1.00205 * 220 =  220.451 mm

  strain rate

(Lf - Li) / Time = (0.451) / 2 min = 0.2255 mm/min

C) Elongation in inches prior to fracture

ΔL = ε × Li = 0.451 mm

Lf = 220 mm + 0.451 mm = 220.451 mm =  8.6792 inches

3 0
3 years ago
The human circulatory system consists of a complex branching pipe network ranging in diameter from
Stels [109]

Answer: the average velocity decreases

Explanation:

From the provided data we have:

Vessel    avg. diameter[mm] number

Aorta                 25.0                   1

Arteries             4.0                    159

Arteioles           0.06                 1.4*10^7

Capillaries         0.012               2.9*10^9

from the information, let \hat{m} be the mass flow rate, \rho is density, n number of vessels, and A is the cross-section area for each vessel

the flow rate is constant so it is equal for all vessels,

The average velocity is related to the flow rate by:

\hat{m} = v* \rho * A * n

we clear the side where v is in:

v = \frac{\hat{m}}{\rho A n}

area is π*R^2 where R is the average radius of the vessel (diameter/2)

we get:

v = \frac{\hat{m}}{\rho \pi R^2 n}

you can directly see in the last equation that if we go from the aorta to the capillaries, the number of vessels is going to increase ( n will increase and R is going to decrease ) . From the table, R is significantly smaller in magnitude orders than n, therefore, it wont impact the results as much as n. On the other hand, n will change from 1 to 2.9 giga vessels which will dramatically reduce the average blood velocity

8 0
3 years ago
The water in an 8-m-diameter, 3-m-high above-ground swimming pool is to be emptied by unplugging a 3-cm-diameter, 25-m-long hori
Dima020 [189]

Answer:

The maximum discharge rate of water is 4.6 L/s

Explanation:

Given data:

d=diameter=8 m

h=height=3 m

The mathematical expression for the theoritical velocity is:

v_{th} =\sqrt{2gh} =\sqrt{2*9.8*3} =7.6681m/s

The maximum discharge can be calculate by:

Q=C_{d} Av_{th}

Here

Cd=coefficient of discharge=0.855

Q=0.855*\frac{\pi }{4} *d^{2} *vx_{th} =0.855*\frac{\pi }{4} *0.03^{2} *7.6681=0.0046m^{3} /s=4.6L/s

8 0
3 years ago
3) What kind of bridges direct their load along it's curve and into the
AlladinOne [14]

Explanation:

suspension is the answer

8 0
3 years ago
Two metallic terminals protrude from a device. The terminal on the left is the positive reference for a voltage called vx (the o
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Vx = 6.242 x 10raised to power 15

Vy = -6.242 x 10raised to power 15

Explanation:

from E = IVt

but V = IR from ohm's law and Q = It from faraday's first law

I = Q/t

E = Q/t x V x t = QV

hence, E =QV

V = E/Q

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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