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Vera_Pavlovna [14]
2 years ago
10

Pulitzer Prize categories

Engineering
1 answer:
Oliga [24]2 years ago
7 0
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In a photonic material, signal transmission occurs by which of the following? a)- Electrons b)- Photons
fredd [130]

B. Photons.

In a photonic material, signal transmission occurs by photons which are light particles.

8 0
3 years ago
Hey, I have a question, I was thinking that if you have engineering skills or drawing skill you could help me to start a project
gayaneshka [121]

Answer

Dont have one;(

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
The Cv factor for a valve is 48. Compute the head loss when 30 GPM of water passes through the valve.
dlinn [17]

Answer:

The head loss in Psi is 0.390625 psi.

Explanation:

Fluid looses energy in the form of head loss. Fluid looses energy in the form of head loss when passes through the valve as well.

Given:

Factor cv is 48.

Flow rate of water is 30 GPM.

GPM means gallon per minute.

Calculation:

Step1

Expression for head loss for the water is given as follows:

c_{v}=\frac{Q}{\sqrt{h}}

Here, cv is valve coefficient, Q is flow rate in GPM and h is head loss is psi.

Step2

Substitute 48 for cv and 30 for Q in above equation as follows:

48=\frac{30}{\sqrt{h}}

{\sqrt{h}}=0.625

h = 0.390625 psi.

Thus, the head loss in Psi is 0.390625 psi.

 

5 0
2 years ago
A beam has been fixed to the floor by the pin at B and the roller at A as shown in figure 1 below.​
ahrayia [7]
What figure below???
3 0
2 years ago
In the circuit given below, R1 = 17 kΩ, R2 = 74 kΩ, and R3 = 5 MΩ. Calculate the gain 1formula58.mml when the switch is in posit
Elenna [48]

Answer:a

a) Vo/Vi = - 3.4

b) Vo/Vi = - 14.8

c) Vo/Vi = - 1000

Explanation:

a)

R1 = 17kΩ

for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va -Vo)/17kΩ = 0

sin we know Va≈Vb=0

so

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/17kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 17k/5k

Vo/Vi = -3.4

║Vo/Vi ║ = 3.4    ( negative sign phase inversion)

b)

R2 = 74kΩ

for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

so

(Va-Vi)/5kΩ + (Va-Vo)74kΩ = 0

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/74kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 74kΩ/5kΩ

Vo/Vi = - 14.8

║Vo/Vi ║ = 14.8  ( negative sign phase inversion)

c)

Also for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

Now for position 3 we apply nodal analysis we got at position 1

(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va - Vo)/5000kΩ = 0           ( 5MΩ = 5000kΩ )

so

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/5000kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 5000kΩ/5kΩ

Vo/Vi = - 1000

║Vo/Vi ║ = 1000  ( negative sign phase inversion)

3 0
3 years ago
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