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Anuta_ua [19.1K]
3 years ago
15

Two long parallel wires each carry 2.2 A in the same direction, with their centers 1.8 cm apart.A. Find the magnitude of the mag

netic field halfway between the wires.B. Find the magnitude of the magnetic field at a point in the same plane as the wires, 1.8 cm from one wire and 3.6 cm from the other.C. Find the magnitude of the force of interaction (per length) between the wires.
Physics
1 answer:
Butoxors [25]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

A )

Magnetic field due to a long wire

B = (μ₀ / 4 π ) x( 2i / r )

= 10⁻⁷ x 2 i / r

where i is current , r is distance of point from the wire

Magnetic field at a point in between the wire will be total of magnetic field generated by both the wires

= 10⁻⁷ [ ( 2 x 2.2 / .009 - 2 x 2.2 / .009 ) ]

= 0

The magnetic field acts in opposite direction so they cancel out each other .

B )

At this point their magnetic field will add up

Net magnetic field

=  10⁻⁷ [ ( 2 x 2.2 / .018 + 2 x 2.2 / .036 ) ]

=  10⁻⁷ [ ( 244.44 + 122.22 ) ]

= 10⁻⁷ x 366.66

= 366.66  x 10⁻⁷ T .

C ) Force on a wire in a magnetic field = BiL where B is magnetic field , i is current and L is length of the wire . If length is one then

force = Bi

magnetic field on each wire

= B = (μ₀ / 4 π ) x( 2i / r )

= 10⁻⁷ x 2 x 2.2 / .018

= 244.44 x 10⁻⁷ T

force on each per unit length

= Bi

= 244.44 x 10⁻⁷ x 2.2

= 537.77 x 10⁻⁷ N /m

This is force of interaction between the two wires . Since direction of current is same , they will attract each other .

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The efficiency of a machine is always less than 100% because part of the energy input is used to
Travka [436]

Answer:

C. Overcome Friction

Explanation:

When using any machine usually those with moving parts, you may notice heat forming near the areas where most movement occurs. As friction continues, more energy is used up and released as heat. For that reason, the efficiency of a machine will forever be less than 100%

5 0
3 years ago
The speed of an arrow fired from a compound
san4es73 [151]

Answer:

A.) The arrow`s range is 624,996 m

B.) The arrow`s range is 846.887 m, when the horse is galloping

Explanation:

We have a case of oblique movement. In these cases the movement in the X axis is a Uniform Rectelinear Movement (URM), and a Uniform Accelerated Movement (UAM) in the Y axis.

By the way, the equations that we use for the X axis will be from URM, and those for the Y axis wiil be from UAM.

<u>Equations</u>

X axis:

X=v_{ox}*t

v_{0x} =v_0cos(\alpha)

Y axis:

Y= Y_0 +v_{y0} t - \frac{g}{2} t^2

A.) First, it is necessary to know t, total time.

To figure out t value, we use UAM, since time is determined by this movement.

Now, at the end of the movement, Y=0, then

0= Y_0 +v_{y0} t - \frac{g}{2} t^2

0=2.4m+79m/s*sin(39)t-(1/2*9.81m/s^2)t^2

Caculate the segcond degree equation to obtain the two possible values for t:

t_1= 10.18 \\t_2= -0.04046

But, in physics, time it could not be negative, so we take t_1= 10.18

Caculate now:

X=79m/s*cos(\39)*10.18s= 624.996 m

B.) Now, the narrow has an additional speed, that could be sum to the speed due to the bow.

v_0= 79m/s+13m/s= 92m/s

Using the same procedure that item A, caculate X

First, we need to know the new time

0=2.4m+92m/s*sin(39)t-(1/2*9.81m/s^2)t^2

And we obtain:

t_1=11.845s\\t_2=-0.041s

One more time, we take the positive time: t_1=11.845s

Finally:

X=92m/s *cos(39)*11.845s=846.887 m

6 0
3 years ago
In which of the following situations or places would you want to reduce the
sashaice [31]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

<em>The correct answer would be in the axle of the wheels while you ride your bicycle.</em>

Options A, B, and C requires that the forces of friction is increased in order to have more control.

However, option D requires that there is a minimal frictional force in the axle of the wheels of a bicycle while riding so that a little effort would be required to keep the bicycle moving.

<u>The lesser the friction, the lower the effort that would be needed to keep the bicycle moving and vice versa.</u>

4 0
3 years ago
Which object has the most gravitational potential energy?
Kipish [7]

Answer: An 8 kg book at a height of 3 m has the most gravitational potential energy.

Explanation:

Gravitational potential energy is the product of mass of object, height of object and gravitational field.

So, formula to calculate gravitational potential energy is as follows.

U = mgh

where,

m = mass of object

g = gravitational field = 9.81 m/s^{2}

h = height of object

(A) m = 5 kg and h = 2m

Therefore, its gravitational potential energy is calculated as follows.

U = mgh\\= 5 kg \times 9.81 m/s^{2} \times 2 m\\= 98.1 J    (1 J = kg m^{2}/s^{2})

(B) m = 8 kg and h = 2 m

Therefore, its gravitational potential energy is calculated as follows.

U = mgh\\= 8 kg \times 9.81 m/s^{2} \times 2 m\\= 156.96 J    (1 J = kg m^{2}/s^{2})

(C) m = 8 kg and h = 3 m

Therefore, its gravitational potential energy is calculated as follows.

U = mgh\\= 8 kg \times 9.81 m/s^{2} \times 3 m\\= 235.44 J    (1 J = kg m^{2}/s^{2})

(D) m = 5 kg and h = 3 m

Therefore, its gravitational potential energy is calculated as follows.

U = mgh\\= 5 kg \times 9.81 m/s^{2} \times 3 m\\= 147.15 J    (1 J = kg m^{2}/s^{2})

Thus, we can conclude that an 8 kg book at a height of 3 m has the most gravitational potential energy.

3 0
3 years ago
When waves superimpose and make bigger amplitudes what form of interference is that
eimsori [14]

Answer:

Constructive Interference

Explanation:

Constructive Interference occurs when two waves superimpose and make bigger amplitudes.

In constructive interference, the crests of one wave fall on the crests of second wave and the amplitudes add up. The amplitude of the resultant wave is equal to sum of the amplitude of the individual waves. Similarly, the trough of first wave falls on the trough of other wave and they superimpose to create the trough of the resultant wave.

For Example, In the attachment, two waves A and B superimpose and demonstrate Constructive interference to create the wave C.

7 0
3 years ago
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