Answer:
(a)

(b)
1120 N
Explanation:
Change in velocity,
is given by subtracting the initial velocity from the final velocity and expressed as 
Where v represent the velocity and subscripts f and i represent final and initial respectively. Since the ball finally comes to rest, its final velocity is zero. Substituting 0 for final velocity and the given figure of 8 m/s for initial velocity then the change in velocity is given by

To find
then we substitute 7 kg for m and -8 m/s for
therefore 
(b)
The impact force, F is given as the product of mass and acceleration. Here, acceleration is given by dividing the change in velocity by time ie

Substituting t with 0.05 s then 
Since F=ma then substituting m with 7 Kg we get that F=7*-160=-1120 N
Therefore, the impact force is equivalent to 1120 N
Answer:
The shortest distance is
Explanation:
The free body diagram of this question is shown on the first uploaded image
From the question we are told that
The speed of the bicycle is 
The distance between the axial is 
The mass center of the cyclist and the bicycle is
behind the front axle
The mass center of the cyclist and the bicycle is
above the ground
For the bicycle not to be thrown over the
Momentum about the back wheel must be zero so

=> 
=> 
Here 
So 
Apply the equation of motion to this motion we have

Where 
and
since the bicycle is coming to a stop

=>
Answer:
See explanation
Explanation:
We have a mass
revolving around an axis with an angular speed
, the distance from the axis is
. We are given:
![\omega = 10 [rad/s]\\r=0.5 [m]\\m=13[Kg]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Comega%20%3D%2010%20%5Brad%2Fs%5D%5C%5Cr%3D0.5%20%5Bm%5D%5C%5Cm%3D13%5BKg%5D)
and also the formula which states that the kinetic rotational energy of a body is:
.
Now we use the kinetic energy formula

where
is the tangential velocity of the particle. Tangential velocity is related to angular velocity by:

After replacing in the previous equation we get:

now we have the following:

therefore:

then the moment of inertia will be:
![I = 13*(0.5)^2=3.25 [Kg*m^2]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=I%20%3D%2013%2A%280.5%29%5E2%3D3.25%20%5BKg%2Am%5E2%5D)
Answer:
Explanation:
Given that,
Current in loops are
i1 = 12A
i2 = 20A
The loops are 3.4cm apart
The magnetic field at the center is found to be zero, so when want to find the radius of bigger loop
Magnetic Field is given as
B= μoi/2πr
Where,
μo is a constant = 4π×10^-7 Tm/A
r is the distance between the two wires
i is the current in the wires
B is the magnetic field
NOTE
Field due to large loop should be equal to the smaller loop.
B1 = B2
μo•i1 / 2π•r1 = μo•i2 / 2π•r2
Then, μo, 2π cancels out, so we have
i1 / r1 = i2 / r2
Make r2 subject of formula
i1•r2 = i2•r1
r2 = i2•r1 / i2
r2 = 20×3.4/12
r2 = 5.67cm
The radius of the bigger loop is 5.67cm.
Hahahahha ok it’s B or C or it B