Answer:
In a magnet, the domains all point in the same direction; in an ordinary piece of metal, they're all jumbled up.
Explanation:
In a magnet, the domains all point toward the north pole; in an ordinary piece of metal, they all point to the south pole.
Side note:
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Answer:
A block of mass M = 5 kg is resting on a rough horizontal surface for which the coefficient of friction is 0.2. When a force F = 40N is applied, the acceleration of the block will be then (g=10ms
2 ).
Mass of the block=5kg
Coeffecient of friction=0.2
external applied force, F=40N
The angle at which the force is applied=30degree
So the horizontal component of force=Fcos30=40×
23 =20 3 N
While the uertical component of the force acting in upward direction=Fsin30=40× 21
=20N
The normal reaction from the surface (N)=mg−Fsin30=50−20=30N
So the ualue of limiting friction=μN=0.2×30=6N
Hence the net horizontal force on the block=Fcos30=μN=20
3
N−6N=28.64N
The horizontal acceleration of the block=
m
Fcos30−μN = 528.64
=5.73m/s 2
The frequency of the pendulum is independent of the mass on the end. (c)
This means that it doesn't matter if you hang a piece of spaghetti or a school bus from the bottom end. If there is no air resistance, and no friction at the top end, and the string has no mass, then the time it takes the pendulum to swing from one side to the other <u><em>only</em></u> depends on the <u><em>length</em></u> of the string.
Answer:
2.74
Explanation:
Magnification = image distance/object distance
Mag = v/u
Given
v = 46cm
u = 16.8
Magnification = 46/16.8
Magnification = 2.74
Hence the magnification is 2.74
Answer:
time=4s
Explanation:
we know that in a RL circuit with a resistance R, an inductance L and a battery of emf E, the current (i) will vary in following fashion
, where 
max=
Given that, at i(2)=
⇒
⇒
⇒
Applying logarithm on both sides,
⇒
⇒
⇒
Now substitute 
⇒
⇒
⇒
Applying logarithm on both sides,
⇒
⇒
⇒
now subs.
⇒
also 
⇒
⇒
