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vovangra [49]
2 years ago
10

In the stream, water waves bunched up as the water flowed by. As we

Physics
1 answer:
Paladinen [302]2 years ago
7 0
Yea it would be barrier. since the stream has a cover for the water
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A force of 20 N is executed to raise a rock weighing 30 N. What is the actual mechanical advantage?
xxMikexx [17]
I am absolutely sure its 1.5
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Newton first law of motion ?​
maw [93]

Answer:

The law of inertia

Explanation:

A body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion will remain in motion unless it is acted upon by an external force

8 0
2 years ago
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A man ties one end of a strong rope 8.17 m long to the bumper of his truck, 0.524 m from the ground, and the other end to a vert
Kamila [148]

Answer:

2442.5 Nm

Explanation:

Tension, T = 8.57 x 10^2 N

length of rope, l = 8.17 m

y = 0.524 m

h = 2.99 m

According to diagram

Sin θ = (2.99 - 0.524) / 8.17

Sin θ = 0.3018

θ = 17.6°

So, torque about the base of the tree is

Torque = T x Cos θ x 2.99

Torque = 8.57 x 100 x Cos 17.6° x 2.99

Torque = 2442.5 Nm

thus, the torque is 2442.5 Nm.

8 0
3 years ago
A 52 N sled is pulled across a cement sidewalk at constant speed. A horizontal force of 36 N is exerted. What is the coefficient
Andre45 [30]

Answer:

μ = 0.692

Explanation:

In order to solve this problem, we must make a free body diagram and include the respective forces acting on the body. Similarly, deduce the respective equations according to the conditions of the problem and the directions of the forces.

Attached is an image with the respective forces:

A summation of forces on the Y-axis is performed equal to zero, in order to determine the normal force N. this summation is equal to zero since there is no movement on the Y-axis.

Since the body moves at a constant speed, there is no acceleration so the sum of forces on the X-axis must be equal to zero.

The frictional force is defined as the product of the coefficient of friction by the normal force. In this way, we can calculate the coefficient of friction.

The process of solving this problem can be seen in the attached image.

5 0
3 years ago
A simple pendulum has a period of 3.45 second, when the length of the pendulum is shortened by 1.0m, the period is 2.81 second c
den301095 [7]

Answer:

Original length = 2.97 m

Explanation:

Let the original length of the pendulum be 'L' m

Given:

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²

Original time period of the pendulum (T) = 3.45 s

Now, the length is shortened by 1.0 m. So, the new length is 1 m less than the original length.

New length of the pendulum is, L_1=L-1

New time period of the pendulum is, T_1=2.81\ s

We know that, the time period of a simple pendulum of length 'L' is given as:

T=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}-------------- (1)

So, for the new length, the time period is given as:

T_1=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{L_1}{g}}------------ (2)

Squaring both the equations and then dividing them, we get:

\dfrac{T^2}{T_1^2}=\dfrac{(2\pi)^2\frac{L}{g}}{(2\pi)^2\frac{L_1}{g}}\\\\\\\dfrac{T^2}{T_1^2}=\dfrac{L}{L_1}\\\\\\L=\dfrac{T^2}{T_1^2}\times L_1

Now, plug in the given values and calculate 'L'. This gives,

L=\frac{3.45^2}{2.81^2}\times (L-1)\\\\L=1.507L-1.507\\\\L-1.507L=-1.507\\\\-0.507L=-1.507\\\\L=\frac{-1.507}{-0.507}=2.97\ m

Therefore, the original length of the simple pendulum is 2.97 m

4 0
2 years ago
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