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galben [10]
3 years ago
11

An ideal Rankine cycle operates with turbine inlet steam at 90 bar and 500°C, and a condenser at 40 °C. Calculate the efficiency

of this cycle.

Engineering
1 answer:
lilavasa [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

40.8%

Explanation:

A rankine cycle is a generation cycle using water as a working fluid, when heat enters the boiler the water undergoes a series of changes in state and energy until generating power through the turbine.

This cycle is composed of four main components, the boiler, the pump, the turbine and the condenser as shown in the attached image

To solve any problem regarding the rankine cycle, enthalpies in all states must be calculated using the thermodynamic tables and taking into account the following.

• The pressure of state 1 and 4 are equal

• The pressure of state 2 and 3 are equal

• State 1 is superheated steam

• State 2 is in saturation state

• State 3 is saturated liquid at the lowest pressure

• State 4 is equal to state 3 because the work of the pump is negligible.

Once all enthalpies are found, the following equations are used using the first law of thermodynamics

Wout = m (h1-h2)

Qin = m (h1-h4)

Win = m (h4-h3)

Qout = m (h2-h1)

The efficiency is calculated as the power obtained on the heat that enters

Efficiency = Wout / Qin

Efficiency = (h1-h2) / (h1-h4)

first we calculate the enthalpies in all states

h1=3386kJ/Kg

h2=2073kJ/Kg

h2=h3=167.5kJ/Kg

we use the efficiency ecuation

Efficiency =\frac{(h1-h2) }{(h1-h4)}  =\frac{3386-2073}{3386-167.5} =0.408=40.8%

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A 600-MW steam power plant, which is cooled by a nearby river, has a thermal efficiency of 54 percent. Determine the rate of hea
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Explanation:

The heat transfer rate to the river water is calculated by this expression:

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\dot Q_{L} = (\frac{1}{\eta_{th}}-1 )\cdot \dot W\\\dot Q_{L} = (\frac{1}{0.54}-1)\cdot (600 MW)\\\dot Q _{L} = 511.111 MW

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Technician B is right.

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Casein, a dairy product used in making cheese, contains 25% moisture when wet. A dairy sells this product for $40/100 kg. If req
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2 years ago
Pipe Diameter and Reynolds Number. An oil is being pumped inside a 10.0-mm-diameter pipe at a Reynolds number of 2100. The oil d
alexdok [17]

Answer:

The velocity in the pipe is 5.16m/s. The pipe diameter for the second fluid should be 6.6 mm.

Explanation:

Here the first think you have to consider is the definition of the Reynolds number (Re) for flows in pipes. Rugly speaking, the Reynolds number is an adimensonal parameter to know if the fliud flow is in laminar or turbulent regime. The equation to calculate this number is:

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For the second fluid, we want to keep the Re=2100 and v=5.16m/s. Therefore, using the equation of Reynolds number the diameter is:

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