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torisob [31]
3 years ago
6

Dehydrohalogenation of 1-chloro-1-methylcyclopropane affords two alkenes (A and B) as products.

Chemistry
1 answer:
UNO [17]3 years ago
4 0

Explanation:

Dehydrohalogenation reactions occurs as elimination reactions through the following mechanism:

Step 1: A strong base(usually KOH) removes a slightly acidic hydrogen proton from the alkyl halide.

Step 2: The electrons from the broken hydrogen‐carbon bond are attracted toward the slightly positive carbon (carbocation) atom attached to the chlorine atom. As these electrons approach the second carbon, the halogen atom breaks free.

However, elimination will be slower in the exit of Hydrogen atom at the C2 and C3 because of the steric hindrance by the methyl group.

Elimination of the hydrogen from the methyl group is easier.

Thus, the major product will A

You might be interested in
IF ANSWER I WILL GIVE BRAINLESS
vovikov84 [41]

Answer:

Answer 9 - 100 joules energy was at the producer level

Answer 10 - Remaining energy is used in metabolism

Explanation:

Answer 9

The energy at each trophic level is only 10% of the energy at its previous trophic level.

The energy at producer level is X

10 % of X = 10 Joules

\frac{10}{100} * X = 10\\X = 100Joules

Answer 10

Because the remaining 90% energy is utilized by the producer for its metabolism

3 0
3 years ago
1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 how many unpaired electrons are in the atom represented by the electron configuration above?
Sedbober [7]
It's a combination of factors:
Less electrons paired in the same orbital
More electrons with parallel spins in separate orbitals
Pertinent valence orbitals NOT close enough in energy for electron pairing to be stabilized enough by large orbital size
DISCLAIMER: Long answer, but it's a complicated issue, so... :)
A lot of people want to say that it's because a "half-filled subshell" increases stability, which is a reason, but not necessarily the only reason. However, for chromium, it's the significant reason.
It's also worth mentioning that these reasons are after-the-fact; chromium doesn't know the reasons we come up with; the reasons just have to be, well, reasonable.
The reasons I can think of are:
Minimization of coulombic repulsion energy
Maximization of exchange energy
Lack of significant reduction of pairing energy overall in comparison to an atom with larger occupied orbitals
COULOMBIC REPULSION ENERGY
Coulombic repulsion energy is the increased energy due to opposite-spin electron pairing, in a context where there are only two electrons of nearly-degenerate energies.
So, for example...
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−− is higher in energy than
↑
↓
−−−−−

↓
↑
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
To make it easier on us, we can crudely "measure" the repulsion energy with the symbol
Π
c
. We'd just say that for every electron pair in the same orbital, it adds one
Π
c
unit of destabilization.
When you have something like this with parallel electron spins...
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
It becomes important to incorporate the exchange energy.
EXCHANGE ENERGY
Exchange energy is the reduction in energy due to the number of parallel-spin electron pairs in different orbitals.
It's a quantum mechanical argument where the parallel-spin electrons can exchange with each other due to their indistinguishability (you can't tell for sure if it's electron 1 that's in orbital 1, or electron 2 that's in orbital 1, etc), reducing the energy of the configuration.
For example...
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−− is lower in energy than
↑
↓
−−−−−

↓
↑
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
To make it easier for us, a crude way to "measure" exchange energy is to say that it's equal to
Π
e
for each pair that can exchange.
So for the first configuration above, it would be stabilized by
Π
e
(
1
↔
2
), but the second configuration would have a
0
Π
e
stabilization (opposite spins; can't exchange).
PAIRING ENERGY
Pairing energy is just the combination of both the repulsion and exchange energy. We call it
Π
, so:
Π
=
Π
c
+
Π
e

Inorganic Chemistry, Miessler et al.
Inorganic Chemistry, Miessler et al.
Basically, the pairing energy is:
higher when repulsion energy is high (i.e. many electrons paired), meaning pairing is unfavorable
lower when exchange energy is high (i.e. many electrons parallel and unpaired), meaning pairing is favorable
So, when it comes to putting it together for chromium... (
4
s
and
3
d
orbitals)
↑
↓
−−−−−
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
compared to
↑
↓
−−−−−
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
is more stable.
For simplicity, if we assume the
4
s
and
3
d
electrons aren't close enough in energy to be considered "nearly-degenerate":
The first configuration has
Π
=
10
Π
e
.
(Exchanges:
1
↔
2
,
1
↔
3
,
1
↔
4
,
1
↔
5
,
2
↔
3
,

2
↔
4
,
2
↔
5
,
3
↔
4
,
3
↔
5
,
4
↔
5
)
The second configuration has
Π
=
Π
c
+
6
Π
e
.
(Exchanges:
1
↔
2
,
1
↔
3
,
1
↔
4
,
2
↔
3
,
2
↔
4
,
3
↔
4
)
Technically, they are about
3.29 eV
apart (Appendix B.9), which means it takes about
3.29 V
to transfer a single electron from the
3
d
up to the
4
s
.
We could also say that since the
3
d
orbitals are lower in energy, transferring one electron to a lower-energy orbital is helpful anyways from a less quantitative perspective.
COMPLICATIONS DUE TO ORBITAL SIZE
Note that for example,
W
has a configuration of
[
X
e
]
5
d
4
6
s
2
, which seems to contradict the reasoning we had for
Cr
, since the pairing occurred in the higher-energy orbital.
But, we should also recognize that
5
d
orbitals are larger than
3
d
orbitals, which means the electron density can be more spread out for
W
than for
Cr
, thus reducing the pairing energy
Π
.
That is,
Π
W
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Sulfur and magnesium both have two valence electrons.<br> a. True<br> b. False
Nezavi [6.7K]
It would be false sulfur has 6 
3 0
3 years ago
9. Elements that are characterized by the filling of p orbitals are classified as
Bogdan [553]

Answer:

p block elements

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
A sample of iron metal is placed in a graduated cylinder. it is noted that 10.4 ml of water is displaced by the iron. the iron i
Pavel [41]
<h3>Answer:</h3>

                 162.43 g of FeCl₂

<h3>Explanation:</h3>

Step 1: Calculate mass of Fe;

As,

                                   Density  =  Mass ÷ Volume

Or,

                                   Mass  =  Density × Volume

Where Volume is the volume of water displaced  =  10.4 mL

Putting values,

                                   Mass  =  7.86 g.mL⁻¹ × 10.4 mL

                                   Mass  =  81.744 g of Fe

Step 2: Calculate amount of FeCl₂;

The balance chemical equation is as follow,

                                Fe  +  2 HCl   →    FeCl₂  +  H₂ ↑

According to this equation,

       55.85 g (1 mol) Fe produced  =  110.98 g (1 mol) of FeCl₂

So,

               81.744 g Fe will produce  =  X g of FeCl₂

Solving for X,

                    X  =  (81.744 g × 110.98 g) ÷ 55.85 g

                     X =  162.43 g of FeCl₂

7 0
3 years ago
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