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sashaice [31]
3 years ago
14

What is latent heat of fusion?

Physics
2 answers:
Thepotemich [5.8K]3 years ago
6 0
There's two forms of latent heat, there's latent heat of fusion which is melting, and there's latent heat of vaporization which is boiling. They describe the direction of energy flow when changing from one thing to the next like solid to liquid, or liquid to gas.
Naddik [55]3 years ago
5 0

If you have a lump of solid at its melting point ... like ice at 32°F ...
you have to put a certain amount of heat into it just to change it
to water at 32°F.  That amount of heat, that's used just to change
a solid lump into liquid without changing its temperature, is called
the heat of fusion for that substance.

The number is different for every substance.

For water, it takes 336 joules of heat to melt 1 gram of ice
into 1 gram of water, all at 32°F (0°C).
That's an enormous latent heat of fusion ... more than almost any
other known substance.  That's why ice is such a good choice
when you need something to put in your drink to cool it down.
Ice absorbs a huge amount of heat before it melts and the drink
gets watered down.
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The list of choices you provided with your question
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3 years ago
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Which experiment best shows water’s ability to act as a solvent? raise the temperature of water and record its boiling point. fr
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An automobile steering wheel is shown. What is the ideal mechanical advantage? If the AMA is 8, what is the efficiency of the st
Mars2501 [29]

1. Ideal Mechanical Advantage (IMA): 9

Explanation:

For a wheel and axle system like the steering wheel, the IMA is given by:

IMA=\frac{r_w}{r_a}

where

r_w is the radius of the wheel

r_a is the radius of the axle

For the steering wheel of the problem, we see that r_w = 18 cm and r_a=2 cm, so the IMA is

IMA=\frac{18 cm}{2 cm}=9


2. Efficiency: 88.9%

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\eta=\frac{AMA}{IMA}\cdot 100

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6 0
3 years ago
100 points! please help!!!
IRINA_888 [86]

Answer:

Explanation:

A plane flies due north (90° from east) with a velocity of 100 km/h for 2 hours.

With no wind, it will be 100*2 = 200 km north of its starting point.

But a steady wind blows southeast at 30 km/h at an angle of 315° from due east.

So the wind itself will blow the plane 30*2 = 60km at an angle of 315° from due east.

That is the same as 60*cos315° = 42.43km due east and 60*sin315° = -42.43km north.

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Answer:

The answer is D.

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