Answer:
2.286 ohm
Explanation:
R1 = 16 ohm
R2 = 8 ohm
R3 = 4 ohm
They all are connected in parallel combination
Let the equivalent resistance is R.
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3
1/R = 1/16 + 1/8 + 1/4
1/R = (1 + 2 + 4) / 16
1/R = 7 / 16
R = 16/7 = 2.286 ohm
The mass of the rider 1 is 4 g.
<h3>
The use of a rider in mass measurement</h3>
Rider is a metallic wire piece which is of certain mass and can be bent . It can move the beam of the Paul Bunge Balance.
The riders are the sliding pointers positioned on top of the beams to show the pan and beam weight in grams.
<h3>Mass of the rider 1</h3>
The mass of the rider 1 is obtained by subtracting mass of riders as show below.
mass of rider 1 = mass of object - (mass of rider 2 + mass of rider 3)
mass of rider 1 = 694 g - (600 g + 90 g)
mass of rider 1 = 694 g - 690 g
mass of rider 1 = 4 g
Thus, the mass of the rider 1 is 4 g.
Learn more about use of riders in mass measurement here: brainly.com/question/1747339
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Group of answer choices.
A. Community and Forum Resources.
B. Get Live Help.
C. Tech Specs.
D. Top Support Issues.
Answer:
A. Community and Forum Resources.
Explanation:
Microsoft is a multinational corporation that designs and develops various types of software applications or programs such as Microsoft operating system (OS), Microsoft Word, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Access, Microsoft PowerPoint, etc., to avail end users the ability to perform different tasks on their computers.
Whenever these users encounter a problem with any of these software applications or programs, they can easily go to the official forums and communities to get help from professionals and other end users who may have experienced such problems in the past. These community and forums are typically interactive in nature and as such serves its purpose often times.
Hence, Microsoft users can browse forums by topic, search existing questions and answers, or ask their own questions on Community and Forum Resources.
Answer:
a) A1 = 
b) A1 = 2.688 cm
c) Q1 = A1 x v1
d) v1 = 3.1994 m/s
e) A2 = 
f) A2 = 0.7963cm
Explanation:
a) Area = 
r = 
thus,
area = 
A1 = ![\frac{\pi (d1)^{2} }{4}[/tex]b) d1 = 1.85 cmsubstituting in the above equation,A1 = [tex]\frac{\pi (d1)^{2} }{4}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%20%28d1%29%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%7B4%7D%5B%2Ftex%3C%2Fstrong%3E%5D%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3Eb%29%20d1%20%3D%201.85%20cm%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3Esubstituting%20in%20the%20above%20equation%2C%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3EA1%20%3D%20%20%5Btex%5D%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%20%28d1%29%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%7B4%7D)
A1 = 
A1 = 2.688 cm
c) Flow rate = Area x velocity ( refer brainly.com/question/13997998)
Q1 = A1 x v1
d) From the above equation,
v1 =
=
= 319.94 cm/s = 3.1994 m/s
e) Since the flow rate Q1 is constant throughout the hose, Av is a constant.
i.e. A1 x v1 = A2 x v2
thus,
A2 = 
f) v2 = 10.8 m/s.
substituting the values in the above equation,
A2 =
= 0.7963cm