Answer:
d = 0.05 [m] = 50 [mm]
Explanation:
We must remember the principle of conservation of energy which tells us that energy is transformed from one way to another. For this case, the initial kinetic energy is transformed into useful work that is equal to the product of force by distance.
![E_{k}=F*d\\400 = 8000*d\\d = 0.05 [m] = 50 [mm]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E_%7Bk%7D%3DF%2Ad%5C%5C400%20%3D%208000%2Ad%5C%5Cd%20%3D%200.05%20%5Bm%5D%20%3D%2050%20%5Bmm%5D)
Answer:

Explanation:
For the simple pendulum problem we need to remember that:
,
where
is the angular position, t is time, g is the gravity, and L is the length of the pendulum. We also need to remember that there is a relationship between the angular frequency and the length of the pendulum:
,
where
is the angular frequency.
There is also an equation that relates the oscillation period and the angular frequeny:
,
where T is the oscillation period. Now, we can easily solve for L:

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Answer:
W = 19.845 J
Explanation:
Work is defined as W = Fdcos
, where F is the force exerted and d is the distance. Because the direction the ball is falling is the same direction as the force itself,
= 0 deg, and since cos(0) = 1, this equation is equivalent to W = Fd. In this case, the force exerted is the weight force, which is equivalent to m * g. Substituting you get:
W = mgd = 0.810 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * 2.5m
W = 19.845 J
Answer:
t = 6.17 s
Explanation:
For a 1 revolution movement, 
Torque, 
Moment of Inertia, 
If the wheel starts from rest, 
The angular displacement of the wheel can be given by the formula:
................(1)
Where
is the angular acceleration

To get t, put all necessary parameters into equation (1)
