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Ivan
3 years ago
9

The pressure at the button of a glass filled with water

Physics
1 answer:
-Dominant- [34]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: Plz mark me brainlest.

The pressure in the bottom of the glass is defined as P= (pv)g/A.

  • V is the Volume.
  • A is the Area.
  • G is the acceleration due to gravity.
  • P is the density.
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Two point sources are simultaneously creating waves with a wavelength of 6 cm. Point X lies between the two sources. It is 9 cm
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OPTION D (The waves will sometimes get very high and very low) is the answer.

Explanation:

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As the frequency which measures the number of waves per unit of time is inversely proportional to the wavelength, point X which lies between two sources, and one source is shorter than another, the wave heights at point x will vary as the distances from point X vary too. This means that waves at point X depending on the wave type and source will get very high at times and very low.

                                                   

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In a physics laboratory experiment, a coil with 200 turns enclosing an area of 13.1 cm2 is rotated during the time interval 3.10
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Answer:

A)\Phi=83.84\times 10^{-9}

B)\Phi=0 Wb

C)emf=5.4090\times 10^{-4}V

Explanation:

Given that:

  • no. of turns i the coil, n=200
  • area of the coil, a=13.1 \times 10^{-4}\,m^2
  • time interval of rotation, t=3.1\times 10^{-2}\,s
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(A)

Initially the coil area is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

So, magnetic flux is given as:

\Phi=B.a\,cos \theta..................................(1)

\theta is the angle between the area vector and the magnetic field lines. Area vector is always perpendicular to the area given. In this case area vector is parallel to the magnetic field.

\Phi=6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}\, cos 0^{\circ}

\Phi=83.84\times 10^{-9} Wb

(B)

In this case the plane area is parallel to the magnetic field i.e. the area vector is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

∴  \theta=90^{\circ}

From eq. (1)

\Phi=6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}\, cos 90^{\circ}

\Phi=0 Wb

(C)

According to the Faraday's Law we have:

emf=n\frac{B.a}{t}

emf=\frac{200\times 6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}}{3.1\times 10^{-2}}

emf=5.4090\times 10^{-4}V

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