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stiv31 [10]
3 years ago
5

The north and south poles of a magnetic field produced by an electromagnet will switch when the direction of the BLANK changes.

Physics
1 answer:
joja [24]3 years ago
8 0
The north and south poles of a magnetic field produced by an electromagnet will switch when the direction of the Current changes.
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Use the graph below to answer the following question: What is happening to the object's velocity?
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The object's velocity is decreasing.

Explanation:

From graph is the attached image, we can clearly point that the velocity of this motion is decreasing with time.

Velocity is a vector quantity.

  • The y-axis represent displacement.
  • The x-axis depicts time
  • Using the graph, we know that the slope of the line on the graph gives us the velocity as it denotes the change of displacement with time.
  • When we find the slope, it will give us a negative value which shows that the body is slowing down and not increasing speed.

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A lightweight vertical spring of force constant k has its lower end mounted on a table. You compress the spring by a distance d,
shusha [124]

Answer:

v=d\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}

Explanation:

In order to solve this problem, we can do an analysis of the energies involved in the system. Basically the addition of the initial potential energy of the spring and the kinetic energy of the mass should be the same as the addition of the final potential energy of the spring and the kinetic energy of the block. So we get the following equation:

U_{0}+K_{0}=U_{f}+K_{f}

In this case, since the block is moving from rest, the initial kinetic energy is zero. When the block loses contact with the spring, the final potential energy of the spring will be zero, so the equation simplifies to:

U_{0}=K_{f}

The initial potential energy of the spring is given by the equation:

U_{0}=\frac{1}{2}kd^{2}

the Kinetic energy of the block is then given by the equation:

K_{f}=\frac{1}{2}mv_{f}^{2}

so we can now set them both equal to each other, so we get:

=\frac{1}{2}kd^{2}=\frac{1}{2}mv_{f}^{2}

This new equation can be simplified if we multiplied both sides of the equation by a 2, so we get:

kd^{2}=mv_{f}^{2}

so now we can solve this for the final velocity, so we get:

v=d\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}

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3 years ago
Sunglasses that reduce glare take advantage of which kind of wave
marysya [2.9K]

Answer:

It should be option B polarization

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3 years ago
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