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3 years ago

You could use newton’s second law to calculate the force applied to an object if you knew the objects mass and its _____.

Physics

1 answer:

olga2289 [7]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

You could use newton’s second law to calculate the force applied to an object if you knew the objects mass and its <u>acceleration.</u>

Explanation:

By, Newtons second law, the force applied on an object directly varies with the acceleration caused and the mass of the object.

This is given by :

$F=m\ a$

Where $F$ represents force applied on the object , $m$ represents mass of the object and $a$ represents the acceleration.

In order to calculate force applied on object we require the mass of the object and its acceleration. The force can be calculated by finding the product of mass and acceleration of the object.

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A car accelerates from rest at a rate of 6.50 m/s2. Determine thevelocity of the car at t = 4.00 s.

aksik [14]

Answer:

1.62 m/s2

Explanation:

6.50 divided by 4

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2 years ago

Select to show the energy of pendulum 1. Be sure that friction is set to none. Drag the pendulum to an angle (with respect to th

iragen [17]

Answer:

it have Potential energy

Explanation:

given data

Drag the pendulum to an angle 30∘

to find out

what form of energy does it have

solution

we know that pendulum start no kinetic energy when it release from any rest position then in starting it have potential energy only so that when pendulum is angle 30∘ at some height from ground so when it start it have potential energy same as in starting.

we know that the total energy is always conserve

so it have potential energy

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2 years ago

An airplane pilot sets a compass course due west and maintains a speed of 220 km/h. after flying for a half hour she finds herse

timurjin [86]

The net speed due west is = distance traveled in west / time taken = 120/0.5 = 240 km/h.

so airspeed due west is = net speed - speed of plane = 240-220= 20 km/h.

airspeed due south is = distance traveled in west / time taken= 20/0.5= 40 km/h.

the magnitude of the wind velocity = √[(airspeed due south )² + (airspeed due west)²] = √ ( 40^2 + 20^2 ) = 44.72 km/h

the angle of airspeed south of west is tan⁻¹ ( airspeed due south / airspeed due west )= tan⁻¹(40/20)=63.43 degrees.

if wind velocity is 40 km/h due south, her velocity should have 20 km/h component in north.

so component west = sqrt ( 220^2 - 40^2 ) = 216.33 km/h.

the angle north of west is arctan( 40/216.33 ) = 10.47 degrees.

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A block of wood measuring 2.75 cm x 4.80 cm x 7.50 cm has a mass of 84.0 g. will the block of wood sink or float in water?

KIM [24]

The volume of the block of wood is given by length × width ×height
= 2.75 × 4.80 × 7.5
= 99 cm³
Density is given by mass/volume
Thus = 84.0 g/ 99 cm³
= 0.848 g/cm³
Hence; since the block is less dense than water (1 g/cm³) it will float

6 0

2 years ago

An object of mass 10.0kg is released at point A, slidesto the bottom of the 30° incline, then collides with ahorizontal massless

Elenna [48]

Answer:

Explanation:

Potential energy lost by mass = mgh

= 10 x 9.8 x 2 = 196 J

a ) If v be velocity of mass at the bottom , its kinetic energy will be stored in spring as elastic energy

= 1/2 m v² = 1/2 k x² , k is spring constant , x is compression , m is mass falling down

.5 x 10 v² = .5 x 500 x .75²

v = 5.3 m /s

b ) kinetic energy of mass at the bottom

= /2 m v²

= .5 x 10 x 5.3²

= 140.45 J

energy lost by mass while coming down

=potential energy at the top - kinetic energy at bottom

= 196 - 140.45

= 55.55 J .

This is equal to negative work done by friction

work done by friction = - 55.55 J

c ) Since there will be no loss of energy in compression and extension of spring so , no loss of kinetic energy will take place of mass . So it wil have same velocity that is 5.3 m /s while on its return journey.

d ) kinetic energy at the bottom = 140.45

loss of energy by friction again

= 140.45 - 55.55

= 84.9 J

If h be the height attained

mgh = 84.9

10 x 9.8 x h = 84.9

h = .866 m

( We have assumed that loss of energy in return journey will be same due to friction . )

6 0

2 years ago