Answer:
Explanation: Mechanical advantage is a measure of the force amplification achieved by using a tool, mechanical device or machine system. The device preserves the input power and simply trades off forces against movement to obtain a desired amplification in the output force.
Answer:
oh i would have to do alot to answer that
Answer:
a) see attached, a = g sin θ
b)
c) v = √(2gL (1-cos θ))
Explanation:
In the attached we can see the forces on the sphere, which are the attention of the bar that is perpendicular to the movement and the weight of the sphere that is vertical at all times. To solve this problem, a reference system is created with one axis parallel to the bar and the other perpendicular to the rod, the weight of decomposing in this reference system and the linear acceleration is given by
Wₓ = m a
W sin θ = m a
a = g sin θ
b) The diagram is the same, the only thing that changes is the angle that is less
θ' = 9/2 θ
c) At this point the weight and the force of the bar are in the same line of action, so that at linear acceleration it is zero, even when the pendulum has velocity v, so it follows its path.
The easiest way to find linear speed is to use conservation of energy
Highest point
Em₀ = mg h = mg L (1-cos tea)
Lowest point
Emf = K = ½ m v²
Em₀ = Emf
g L (1-cos θ) = v² / 2
v = √(2gL (1-cos θ))
From the starting depth to the surface, the vertical distance is 35 ft.
From the surface to the peak of the jump, the vertical distance is 27 ft.
From the peak of the jump to the surface, the vertical distance is 27 ft.
From the surface to the ending depth, the vertical distance is 18 ft.
Then the total vertical distance is ...
35 ft + 27 ft + 27 ft + 18 ft = 107 ft
The answer is X. I hope this helped