Answer:
v ’= 21.44 m / s
Explanation:
This is a doppler effect exercise that changes the frequency of the sound due to the relative movement of the source and the observer, the expression that describes the phenomenon for body approaching s
f ’= f (v + v₀) / (v-
)
where it goes is the speed of sound 343 m / s, v_{s} the speed of the source v or the speed of the observer
in this exercise both the source and the observer are moving, we will assume that both have the same speed,
v₀ = v_{s} = v ’
we substitute
f ’= f (v + v’) / (v - v ’)
f ’/ f (v-v’) = v + v ’
v (f ’/ f -1) = v’ (1 + f ’/ f)
v ’= (f’ / f-1) / (1 + f ’/ f) v
v ’= (f’-f) / (f + f’) v
let's calculate
v ’= (3400 -3000) / (3000 +3400) 343
v ’= 400/6400 343
v ’= 21.44 m / s
Answer:
solution:
to find the speed of a jogger use the following relation:
V
=
d
x
/d
t
=
7.5
×m
i
/
h
r
...........................(
1
)
in Above equation in x and t. Separating the variables and integrating,
∫
d
x
/7.5
×=
∫
d
t
+
C
or
−
4.7619
=
t
+
C
Here C =constant of integration.
x
=
0 at t
=
0
, we get: C
=
−
4.7619
now we have the relation to find the position and time for the jogger as:
−
4.7619 =
t
−
4.7619
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
(
2
)
Here
x is measured in miles and t in hours.
(a) To find the distance the jogger has run in 1 hr, we set t=1 in equation (2),
to get:
= −
4.7619
=
1
−
4.7619
= −
3.7619
or x
=
7.15
m
i
l
e
s
(b) To find the jogger's acceleration in m
i
l
/
differentiate
equation (1) with respect to time.
we have to eliminate x from the equation (1) using equation (2).
Eliminating x we get:
v
=
7.5×
Now differentiating above equation w.r.t time we get:
a
=
d
v/
d
t
=
−
0.675
/
At
t
=
0
the joggers acceleration is :
a
=
−
0.675
m
i
l
/
=
−
4.34
×
f
t
/
(c) required time for the jogger to run 6 miles is obtained by setting
x
=
6 in equation (2). We get:
−
4.7619
(
1
−
(
0.04
×
6 )
)^
7
/
10=
t
−
4.7619
or
t
=
0.832
h
r
s
Answer:
friction, conduction and induction
Explanation:
Had it in class I had it correct hope this helps.
Answer:
20.60 kV
Explanation:
Capacitance of parallel plates without dielectric between them is:
with d the distance between the plates, A the area of the plates and ε₀ the constant 
, so :
But the dielectric constant is defined as:
With C the effective capacitance (with the dielectric) and Co the original capacitance (without the dielectric). So, the new capacitance is:
But capacitance is related with voltage by:
with Q the charge and V the voltage, using the new capacitance and solving for V:
Answer:
The current is 
The direction is anti-clockwise
Explanation:
The diagram for this question is shown on the first uploaded image
From the question we are told that
the length of the conducting rod is 
The resistance is 
The magnetic field is 
The speed of the rod is 
The emf induced is
substituting values we have
From ohm law the induced current would be
substituting values we have
The direction anticlockwise this because according to lenze law the current due to change in magnetic field will act in the opposite direction of the force causing the magnetic field to change
