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schepotkina [342]
3 years ago
6

One of the main factors driving improvements in the cost and complexity of integrated circuits (ICs) is improvements in photolit

hography and the resulting ability to print ever-smaller features. Modern circuits are made using a variety of complicated lithography techniques, with the goal to make electronic traces as small and as close to each other as possible (to reduce the overall size, and thus increase the speed). In the end, though, all-optical techniques are limited by diffraction.
Assume we have a scannable laser that draws a line on a circuit board (the light exposes a line of photoresist, which then becomes impervious to a subsequent chemical etch, leaving only the narrow metal line under the exposed photoresist). Assume the laser wavelength is 248.0 nm (Krypton Fluoride excimer laser), the initial beam diameter is 1.0 cm, and the focusing lens (diameter = 1.3 cm) is extremely 'fast', with a focal length of only 0.625 cm.
a. What is the approximate width w of the line?
b. What is the minimum resolvable line separation between adjacent lines?
c. If the laser wavelength is instead reduced to 157 nm, what is the new minimum resolvable line separation?
Physics
1 answer:
nika2105 [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

0.000003782 m

0.000001891 m

0.000001197125 m

Explanation:

\lambda = Wavelength = 248 nm

D = Diameter of beam = 1 cm

f = Focal length = 0.625 cm

The angle is given by

\theta=\dfrac{1.22\lambda}{D}

The width is given by

d=2\theta f\\\Rightarrow d=2\dfrac{1.22\lambda f}{D}\\\Rightarrow d=2\dfrac{1.22\times 248\times 10^{-9}\times 6.25\times 10^{-2}}{1\times 10^{-2}}\\\Rightarrow d=0.000003782\ m

The required width is 0.000003782 m

Minimum resolvable line separation is given by

\dfrac{0.000003782}{2}=0.000001891\ m

The minimum resolvable line separation between adjacent lines is 0.000001891 m

when \lambda=157\ nm

d=2\dfrac{1.22\times 157\times 10^{-9}\times 6.25\times 10^{-2}}{1\times 10^{-2}}\\\Rightarrow d=0.00000239425\ m

The new minimum resolvable line separation between adjacent lines is

\dfrac{0.00000239425}{2}=0.000001197125\ m

You might be interested in
The aqueduct passes under Johnson Road in Lancaster through a siphon. The maximum capacity of the aqueduct is 350 m3/s. The heig
Mariulka [41]

Answer:

D ≈ 8.45 m

L ≈ 100.02 m

Explanation:

Given

Q = 350 m³/s (volumetric water flow rate passing through the stretch of channel, maximum capacity of the aqueduct)

y₁ - y₂ = h = 2.00 m (the height difference from the upper to the lower channels)

x = 100.00 m (distance between the upper and the lower channels)

We assume that:

  • the upper and the lower channels are at the same pressure (the atmospheric pressure).
  • the velocity of water in the upper channel is zero (v₁ = 0 m/s).
  • y₁ = 2.00 m  (height of the upper channel)
  • y₂ = 0.00 m  (height of the lower channel)
  • g = 9.81 m/s²
  • ρ = 1000 Kg/m³ (density of water)

We apply Bernoulli's equation as follows between the point 1 (the upper channel) and the point 2 (the lower channel):

P₁ + (ρ*v₁²/2) + ρ*g*y₁ = P₂ + (ρ*v₂²/2) + ρ*g*y₂

Plugging the known values into the equation and simplifying we get

Patm + (1000 Kg/m³*(0 m/s)²/2) + (1000 Kg/m³)*(9.81 m/s²)*(2 m) = Patm + (1000 Kg/m³*v₂²/2) + (1000 Kg/m³)*(9.81 m/s²)*(0 m)

⇒ v₂ = 6.264 m/s

then we apply the formula

Q = v*A  ⇒   A = Q/v ⇒   A = Q/v₂

⇒   A = (350 m³/s)/(6.264 m/s)

⇒   A = 55.873 m²

then, we get the diameter of the pipe as follows

A = π*D²/4   ⇒   D = 2*√(A/π)

⇒   D = 2*√(55.873 m²/π)

⇒   D = 8.434 m ≈ 8.45 m

Now, the length of the pipe can be obtained as follows

L² = x² + h²

⇒ L² = (100.00 m)² + (2.00 m)²

⇒ L ≈ 100.02 m

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
One problem for humans living in outer space is that they are apparently weightless. One way around this problem is to design a
Maurinko [17]

This question is not complete.

The complete question is as follows:

One problem for humans living in outer space is that they are apparently weightless. One way around this problem is to design a space station that spins about its center at a constant rate. This creates “artificial gravity” at the outside rim of the station. (a) If the diameter of the space station is 800 m, how many revolutions per minute are needed for the “artificial gravity” acceleration to be 9.80m/s2?

Explanation:

a. Using the expression;

T = 2π√R/g

where R = radius of the space = diameter/2

R = 800/2 = 400m

g= acceleration due to gravity = 9.8m/s^2

1/T = number of revolutions per second

T = 2π√R/g

T = 2 x 3.14 x √400/9.8

T = 6.28 x 6.39 = 40.13

1/T = 1/40.13 = 0.025 x 60 = 1.5 revolution/minute

6 0
3 years ago
2) A car travels 5 miles north, and then 10 miles south. What is the person's DISTANCE and
Liono4ka [1.6K]

Answer:

distance traveled is 15 mi

displacement is 5 mi

Explanation:

Distance takes time into account and adds up all the tiny displacements during the entire period of the trip.

Displacement ignores time and looks only at the change in position from the starting point to the ending point.

6 0
3 years ago
A 25.0 kg box of textbooks rests on a loading ramp that makes an angle α with the horizontal. The coefficient of kinetic frictio
Alekssandra [29.7K]

Answer:

The minimum angle at which the box starts to slip (rounded to the next whole number) is α=19°

Explanation:

In order to solve this problem we must start by drawing a sketch of the problem and its corresponding fre body diagram (See picture attached).

So, when we are talking about friction, there are two types of friction coefficients. Static and kinetic. Static friction happens when the box is not moving no matter what force you apply to it. You get to a certain force that is greater than the static friction and the box starts moving, it is then when the kinetic friction comes into play (kinetic friction is generally smaller than static friction). So in order to solve this problem, we must find an angle such that the static friction is the same as the force applie by gravity on the box. For it to be easier to analyze, we must incline the axis of coordinates, just as shown on the picture attached.

After doing an analysis of the free-body diagram, we can build our set of equations by using Newton's thrid law:

\sum F_{x}=0

we can see there are only two forces in x, which are the weight on x and the static friction, so:

-W_{x}+f_{s}=0

when solving for the static friction we get:

f_{s}=W_{x}

We know the weight is found by multiplying the mass by the acceleration of gravity, so:

W=mg

and:

W_{x}=mg sin \alpha

we can substitute this on our sum of forces equation:

f_{s}=mg sin \alpha

the static friction will depend on the normal force applied by the plane on the box, static friction is found by using the following equation:

f_{s}=N\mu_{s}

so we can substitute this on our equation:

N\mu_{s}=mg sin \alpha

but we don't know what the normal force is, so we need to find it by doing a sum of forces in y.

\sum F_{y}=0

In the y direction we got two forces as well, the normal force and the force due to gravity, so we get:

N-W_{y}=0

when solving for N we get:

N=W_{y}

When seeing the free-body diagram we can determine that:

W_{y}=mg cos \alpha

so we can substitute that in the sum of y-forces equation, so we get:

N=mg cos \alpha

we can go ahead and substitute this equation in the sum of forces in x equation so we get:

mg cos \alpha \mu_{s}=mg sin \alpha

we can divide both sides of the equation into mg so we get:

cos \alpha \mu_{s}=sin \alpha

as you may see, the angle doesn't depend on the mass of the box, only on the static coefficient of friction. When solving for \mu_{s} we get:

\mu_{s}=\frac{sin \alpha}{cos \alpha}

when simplifying this we get that:

\mu_{s}=tan \alpha

now we can solve for the angle so we get:

\alpha= tan^{-1}(\mu_{s})

and we can substitute the given value so we get:

\alpha= tan^{-1}(0.350)

which yields:

α=19.29°

which rounds to:

α=19°

8 0
3 years ago
2. A Se lanza un electrón con rapidez inicial v0 = 1.60×106 m/s hacia el interior de un campo uniforme entre las placas paralela
Vanyuwa [196]

Answer:

A)     E = 145.6 N / C , B)  y= 2,8 10-7 m with a downward direction

C) he shape of the trajectory of the two particles is to simulate a parabola,

D)     F_{e} /F_{g} = 10³⁴

Explanation:

A) For this exercise we use Newton's second law to find the acceleration of the electron, where the force is electric

           F = m a  

           - e E = m a

          a = - e E / m

with the field directed downward, the acceleration is in the vertical upward direction.

We look for how much the electron moves with kinematics, in the x direction there is no acceleration,

x axis (parallel to plates)

           x = v₀ t

           t = x / v₀

y axis (perpendicular to plates)

          y = y₀ + v_{oy} t + ½ a t²

Let's take the zero of the system in the middle of the plates y₀ = 0, also the initial vertical velocity is zero (v_{oy} = 0) the width of the plate is known

          y = ½ a t²

we substitute

         y = ½ (e E /m)  (x / v₀)²

         y = ½ e x2 /m v₀²   E

we look for the electric field

        E = 2 m y v₀² / e x²

where to use this expression the length and width of the condenser must be known, suppose that the length is x = l = 1 cm = 1 10⁻² m and the width is y = 0.5 mm = 0.5 10⁻³ m

let's calculate

         E = 2  9.1 10⁻³¹ 0.5 10⁻³ (1.6 10⁶)² / (1.6 10⁻¹⁹ (1 10⁻²)²)

         E = 145.6 N / C

B) The electron is exchanged for a proton

Let's look for the vertical displacement, in this case as the proton has a positive charge it moves towards the bottom of the plates

          y = ½ e x² / m v₀² E

          y = ½ 1.6 10⁻¹⁹ 1 10⁻⁴ / (1.67 10⁻²⁷ (1.6 10⁶)²   145.6

          y = 28.4375 10⁻⁸ m

since the distance between the plates is 0.5 10-3 m, the proton passes the condensate because its deflection is very small

In summary, its displacement is y= 2,8 10-7 m and with a downward direction (the same direction of the electric field)

C) The shape of the trajectory of the two particles is to simulate a parabola, but one for having a negative charge (electron) the force is upwards and the other for having a positive charge (proton) the trajectory is downwards

D) The force of gravity

           F_{g} = G m M / R²

electron

          Between the electron and the positive charges of the conducting plate

           F_{g}= 6.67 10⁻¹¹ 1.67 10⁻²⁷ 9.1 10⁻³¹ / (0.5 10⁻³)²

           F_{g} = 4.1 10⁻⁵¹ N

           

electric force

           F_{e} = -e E

           F_{e} = - 1.6 10⁻¹⁹ 145.6

           F_{e} = 2.3 10⁻¹⁷ N

let's look for the reason between these two forces

         F_{e} / F_{g} = 2.3 10⁻¹⁷ / 4.1 10⁻⁵¹

          F_{e} /F_{g} = 10³⁴

We see that the electric force is many orders of magnitude higher than the gravitational force.

5 0
3 years ago
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