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3 years ago

What is Back EMF? How does it limits the speed of a permanent magnet DC?

Engineering

1 answer:

ss7ja [257]3 years ago

8 0

Answer and Explanation:

The DC motor has coils inside it which produces magnetic field inside the coil and due to thus magnetic field an emf is induced ,this induced emf is known as back emf. The back emf always acts against the applied voltage. It is represented by $E_b$

The back emf of the DC motor is given by $E_b=\frac{NP\Phi }{60A}$

Here N is speed of the motor ,P signifies the number of poles ,Z signifies the the total number of conductor and A is number of parallel paths

As from the relation we can see that back emf and speed ar dependent on each other it means back emf limits the speed of DC motor

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technician A says that in any circuit, electrical current takes the path of least resistance. technician B says that while this

ArbitrLikvidat [17]

Answer:

technician A is correct

Explanation:

Technician B has circuit topologies confused. In a series circuit, there is only one path for electrical current to take. In a parallel circuit, the current will divide between paths in proportion to the inverse of their resistance. The least resistance path will have the most current.

Technician A is mostly correct.

3 0

3 years ago

A structural component in the shape of a flat plate 25.0 mm thick is to be fabricated from a metal alloy for which the yield str

balandron [24]

Answer:

The critical length of surface flaw = 6.176 mm

Explanation:

Given data-

Plane strain fracture toughness Kc = 29.6 MPa-m1/2

Yield Strength = 545 MPa

Design stress. =0.3 × yield strength

= 0.3 × 545

= 163.5 MPa

Dimensionless parameter. Y = 1.3

The critical length of surface flaw is given by

= 1/pi.(Plane strain fracture toughness /Dimensionless parameter× Design Stress)^2

Now putting values in above equation we get,

= 1/3.14( 29.6 / 1.3 × 163.5)^2

=6.176 × 10^-3 m

=6.176 mm

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

4. Water vapor enters a turbine operating at steady state at 1000oF, 220 lbf/in2 , with a volumetric flow rate of 25 ft3/s, and

hodyreva [135]

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6 0

4 years ago

Initially when 1000.00 mL of water at 10oC are poured into a glass cylinder, the height of the water column is 1000.00 mm. The w

Dafna11 [192]

Answer:

$\mathbf{h_2 =1021.9 \ mm}$

Explanation:

Given that :

The initial volume of water $V_1$ = 1000.00 mL = 1000000 mm³

The initial temperature of the water $T_1$ = 10° C

The height of the water column h = 1000.00 mm

The final temperature of the water $T_2$ = 70° C

The coefficient of thermal expansion for the glass is ∝ = $3.8*10^{-6 } mm/mm \ per ^oC$

The objective is to determine the the depth of the water column

In order to do that we will need to determine the volume of the water.

We obtain the data for physical properties of water at standard sea level atmospheric from pressure tables; So:

At temperature $T_1 = 10 ^ 0C$ the density of the water is $\rho = 999.7 \ kg/m^3$

At temperature $T_2 = 70^0 C$ the density of the water is $\rho = 977.8 \ kg/m^3$

The mass of the water is $\rho V = \rho _1 V_1 = \rho _2 V_2$

Thus; we can say $\rho _1 V_1 = \rho _2 V_2$ ;

⇒ $999.7 \ kg/m^3*1000 \ mL = 977.8 \ kg/m^3 *V_2$

$V_2 = \dfrac{999.7 \ kg/m^3*1000 \ mL}{977.8 \ kg/m^3 }$

$V_2 = 1022.40 \ mL$

$v_2 = 1022400 \ mm^3$

Thus, the volume of the water after heating to a required temperature of $70^0C$ is 1022400 mm³

However; taking an integral look at this process; the volume of the water before heating can be deduced by the relation:

$V_1 = A_1 *h_1$

The area of the water before heating is:

$A_1 = \dfrac{V_1}{h_1}$

$A_1 = \dfrac{1000000}{1000}$

$A_1 = 1000 \ mm^2$

The area of the heated water is :

$A_2 = A_1 (1 + \Delta t \alpha )^2$

$A_2 = A_1 (1 + (T_2-T_1) \alpha )^2$

$A_2 = 1000 (1 + (70-10) 3.8*10^{-6} )^2$

$A_2 = 1000.5 \ mm^2$

Finally, the depth of the heated hot water is:

$h_2 = \dfrac{V_2}{A_2}$

$h_2 = \dfrac{1022400}{1000.5}$

$\mathbf{h_2 =1021.9 \ mm}$

Hence the depth of the heated hot water is $\mathbf{h_2 =1021.9 \ mm}$

4 0

3 years ago

A small metal particle passes downward through a fluid medium while being subjected to the attraction of a magnetic field such t

bekas [8.4K]

Answer:

a)Δs = 834 mm

b)V=1122 mm/s

$a=450\ mm/s^2$

Explanation:

Given that

$s = 15t^3 - 3t\ mm$

When t= 2 s

$s = 15t^3 - 3t\ mm$

$s = 15\times 2^3 - 3\times 2\ mm$

s= 114 mm

At t= 4 s

$s = 15t^3 - 3t\ mm$

$s = 15\times 4^3- 3\times 4\ mm$

s= 948 mm

So the displacement between 2 s to 4 s

Δs = 948 - 114 mm

Δs = 834 mm

We know that velocity V

$V=\dfrac{ds}{dt}$

$\dfrac{ds}{dt}=45t^2-3$

At t= 5 s

$V=45t^2-3$

$V=45\times 5^2-3$

V=1122 mm/s

We know that acceleration a

$a=\dfrac{d^2s}{dt^2}$

$\dfrac{d^2s}{dt^2}=90t$

a= 90 t

a = 90 x 5

$a=450\ mm/s^2$

4 0

3 years ago