Answer:
Density of unknown material = 3.86 g/cm³
Explanation:
Mass of unknown material, M = 54 gm
The object occupied 14 gm of water.
Volume of unknown material = Volume of 14 gm of water.
Density of water = 1 gm/cm³
Volume of 14 gm of water
Volume of unknown material, V = Volume of 14 gm of water = 14 cm³
Density of unknown material
Answer:
C. A quantity with magnitude and a direction.
Explanation:
A vector can be defined as a quantity with magnitude and direction. Some examples of vector quantities are velocity, position, displacement, force, torque, acceleration.
For example, given the following data;
Time, t = 18.5secs
Final velocity = 78m/s
Initial velocity = 0
Substituting into the equation;
Acceleration, a = 4.22m/s²
Therefore, the acceleration of the object is 4.22m/s² due North.
In physics, acceleration can be defined as the rate of change of the velocity of an object with respect to time.
This simply means that, acceleration is given by the subtraction of initial velocity from the final velocity all over time.
Hence, if we subtract the initial velocity from the final velocity and divide that by the time, we can calculate an object’s acceleration.
Mathematically, acceleration is given by the equation;
Where,
a is acceleration measured in
v and u is final and initial velocity respectively, measured in
t is time measured in seconds.
The work done by the two forces in moving the chandelier to the given distance is 5,091.2 J.
<h3>
Work done by a single force on the chandelier</h3>
The work done by a single force on the chandelier is determined by taking the net horizontal force applied on the chandelier over the given distance.
where;
is frictional force = 0 (smooth surface).
<h3>Work done by the two forces</h3>
When the two forces combine to pull the chandelier, the total work done will be shared by the two forces.
Thus, the work done by the two forces in moving the chandelier to the given distance is 5,091.2 J.
Learn more about work done here: brainly.com/question/8119756
Angular momentum is given by the length of the arm to the object, multiplied by the momentum of the object, times the cosine of the angle that the momentum vector makes with the arm. From your illustration, that will be:
<span>L = R * m * vi * cos(90 - theta) </span>
<span>cos(90 - theta) is just sin(theta) </span>
<span>and R is the distance the projectile traveled, which is vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / g </span>
<span>so, we have: L = vi^2 * sin(2*theta) * m * vi * sin(theta) / g </span>
<span>We can combine the two vi terms and get: </span>
<span>L = vi^3 * m * sin(theta) * sin(2*theta) / g </span>
<span>What's interesting is that angular momentum varies with the *cube* of the initial velocity. This is because, not only does increased velocity increase the translational momentum of the projectile, but it increase the *moment arm*, too. Also note that there might be a trig identity which lets you combine the two sin() terms, but nothing jumps out at me right at the moment. </span>
<span>Now, for the first part... </span>
<span>There are a few ways to attack this. Basically, you have to find the angle from the origin to the apogee (highest point) in the arc. Once we have that, we'll know what angle the momentum vector makes with the moment-arm because, at the apogee, we know that all of the motion is *horizontal*. </span>
<span>Okay, so let's get back to what we know: </span>
<span>L = d * m * v * cos(phi) </span>
<span>where d is the distance (length to the arm), m is mass, v is velocity, and phi is the angle the velocity vector makes with the arm. Let's take these one by one... </span>
<span>m is still m. </span>
<span>v is going to be the *hoizontal* component of the initial velocity (all the vertical component got eliminated by the acceleration of gravity). So, v = vi * cos(theta) </span>
<span>d is going to be half of our distance R in part two (because, ignoring friction, the path of the projectile is a perfect parabola). So, d = vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g </span>
<span>That leaves us with phi, the angle the horizontal velocity vector makes with the moment arm. To find *that*, we need to know what the angle from the origin to the apogee is. We can find *that* by taking the arc-tangent of the slope, if we know that. Well, we know the "run" part of the slope (it's our "d" term), but not the rise. </span>
<span>The easy way to get the rise is by using conservation of energy. At the apogee, all of the *vertical* kinetic energy at the time of launch (1/2 * m * (vi * sin(theta))^2 ) has been turned into gravitational potential energy ( m * g * h ). Setting these equal, diving out the "m" and dividing "g" to the other side, we get: </span>
<span>h = 1/2 * (vi * sin(theta))^2 / g </span>
<span>So, there's the rise. So, our *slope* is rise/run, so </span>
<span>slope = [ 1/2 * (vi * sin(theta))^2 / g ] / [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / g ] </span>
<span>The "g"s cancel. Astoundingly the "vi"s cancel, too. So, we get: </span>
<span>slope = [ 1/2 * sin(theta)^2 ] / [ sin(2*theta) ] </span>
<span>(It's not too alarming that slope-at-apogee doesn't depend upon vi, since that only determines the "magnitude" of the arc, but not it's shape. Whether the overall flight of this thing is an inch or a mile, the arc "looks" the same). </span>
<span>Okay, so... using our double-angle trig identities, we know that sin(2*theta) = 2*sin(theta)*cos(theta), so... </span>
<span>slope = [ 1/2 * sin(theta)^2 ] / [ 2*sin(theta)*cos(theta) ] = tan(theta)/4 </span>
<span>Okay, so the *angle* (which I'll call "alpha") that this slope makes with the x-axis is just: arctan(slope), so... </span>
<span>alpha = arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) </span>
<span>Alright... last bit. We need "phi", the angle the (now-horizontal) momentum vector makes with that slope. Draw it on paper and you'll see that phi = 180 - alpha </span>
<span>so, phi = 180 - arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) </span>
<span>Now, we go back to our original formula and plug it ALL in... </span>
<span>L = d * m * v * cos(phi) </span>
<span>becomes... </span>
<span>L = [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g ] * m * [ vi * cos(theta) ] * [ cos( 180 - arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) ) ] </span>
<span>Now, cos(180 - something) = cos(something), so we can simplify a little bit... </span>
<span>L = [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g ] * m * [ vi * cos(theta) ] * [ cos( arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) ) ] </span>
Answer:
a) The sign of the charge is positive.
b) The magnetic force on the particle is 0.050 newtons.
Explanation:
The magnetic force F on a moving charge with velocity v passing through a magnetic field B is:
(1)
a)
Because it is a cross product, we can find the direction of the force using the right-hand rule, that is too the direction of the movement. We have two possibilities here because the velocity vector and magnetic field are perpendicular: the particle deflects towards east or toward west, which depends on the charge of the particle. Note that if you put your right hand fingers, except thumb, pointing towards north (direction of velocity) and later close them in the direction of the magnetic field, if you maintain your thumb perpendicular to this movement it will point towards east (See figure), so that will be de direction of the force if the charge is positive, but if the charge is negative, the direction will be opposite (towards west). So the charge has to be positive to deflects towards east.
b)
Now by 1: