All categories

3 years ago

What would happen when two or more capacitors are connected in series across a potential difference, then

Physics

2 answers:

anyanavicka [17]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

The Current Iₜ = I₁ = I₂ = I₃

Charge Qₜ = Q₁ = Q₂ = Q₃

Potential difference Vₜ = V₁ + V₂ + V₃

Capacitance 1/Cₜ = 1/C₁ + 1/C₂ + 1/C₃

Explanation:

According to the attached image;

For series arrangements of capacitors, the current flowing through each of the capacitors are the same and equal to the total current flowing through the circuit;

Iₜ = I₁ = I₂ = I₃

Also the charge storage by each capacitor is equal;

Qₜ = Q₁ = Q₂ = Q₃

The potential difference across each of the capacitors sum up to the total voltage across the circuit;

Vₜ = V₁ + V₂ + V₃

The reciprocal of the total capacitance equals the sum of the reciprocal of capacitances of each of the capacitors;

1/Cₜ = 1/C₁ + 1/C₂ + 1/C₃

crimeas [40]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

1) the net potential difference of the circuit will be the sum of all the potential difference of all the individual capacitors that are connected together.

2) The net capacitance in the circuit would be lesser than that of the capacitance of the individual capacitors.

3) the charges on the individual capacitors will remain the same.

You might be interested in

A mass moves back and forth in simple harmonic motion with amplitude A and period T.

Sever21 [200]

a. 0.5 T

- The amplitude A of a simple harmonic motion is the maximum displacement of the system with respect to the equilibrium position

- The period T is the time the system takes to complete one oscillation

During a full time period T, the mass on the spring oscillates back and forth, returning to its original position. This means that the total distance covered by the mass during a period T is 4 times the amplitude (4A), because the amplitude is just half the distance between the maximum and the minimum position, and during a time period the mass goes from the maximum to the minimum, and then back to the maximum.

So, the time t that the mass takes to move through a distance of 2 A can be found by using the proportion

$1 T : 4 A = t : 2 A$

and solving for t we find

$t=\frac{(1T)(2 A)}{4A}=0.5 T$

b. 1.25T

Now we want to know the time t that the mass takes to move through a total distance of 5 A. SInce we know that

- the mass takes a time of 1 T to cover a distance of 4A

we can set the following proportion:

$1 T : 4 A = t : 5 A$

And by solving for t, we find

$t=\frac{(1T)(5 A)}{4A}=\frac{5}{4} T=1.25 T$

6 0

3 years ago

Very far from earth (at R- oo), a spacecraft has run out of fuel and its kinetic energy is zero. If only the gravitational force

Margaret [11]

Answer:

Speed of the spacecraft right before the collision: $\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{2\, G\cdot M_\text{e}}{R\text{e}}}$ .

Assumption: the earth is exactly spherical with a uniform density.

Explanation:

This question could be solved using the conservation of energy.

The mechanical energy of this spacecraft is the sum of:

the kinetic energy of this spacecraft, and
the (gravitational) potential energy of this spacecraft.

Let $m$ denote the mass of this spacecraft. At a distance of $R$ from the center of the earth (with mass $M_\text{e}$ ), the gravitational potential energy ( $\mathrm{GPE}$ ) of this spacecraft would be:

$\displaystyle \text{GPE} = -\frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R}$ .

Initially, $R$ (the denominator of this fraction) is infinitely large. Therefore, the initial value of $\mathrm{GPE}$ will be infinitely close to zero.

On the other hand, the question states that the initial kinetic energy ( $\rm KE$ ) of this spacecraft is also zero. Therefore, the initial mechanical energy of this spacecraft would be zero.

Right before the collision, the spacecraft would be very close to the surface of the earth. The distance $R$ between the spacecraft and the center of the earth would be approximately equal to $R_\text{e}$ , the radius of the earth.

The $\mathrm{GPE}$ of the spacecraft at that moment would be:

$\displaystyle \text{GPE} = -\frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}}$ .

Subtract this value from zero to find the loss in the $\rm GPE$ of this spacecraft:

$\begin{aligned}\text{GPE change} &= \text{Initial GPE} - \text{Final GPE} \\ &= 0 - \left(-\frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}}\right) = \frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}} \end{aligned}$

Assume that gravitational pull is the only force on the spacecraft. The size of the loss in the $\rm GPE$ of this spacecraft would be equal to the size of the gain in its $\rm KE$ .

Therefore, right before collision, the $\rm KE$ of this spacecraft would be:

$\begin{aligned}& \text{Initial KE} + \text{KE change} \\ &= \text{Initial KE} + (-\text{GPE change}) \\ &= 0 + \frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}} \\ &= \frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}}\end{aligned}$ .

On the other hand, let $v$ denote the speed of this spacecraft. The following equation that relates $v\!$ and $m$ to $\rm KE$ :

$\displaystyle \text{KE} = \frac{1}{2}\, m \cdot v^2$ .

Rearrange this equation to find an equation for $v$ :

$\displaystyle v = \sqrt{\frac{2\, \text{KE}}{m}}$ .

It is already found that right before the collision, $\displaystyle \text{KE} = \frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}}$ . Make use of this equation to find $v$ at that moment:

$\begin{aligned}v &= \sqrt{\frac{2\, \text{KE}}{m}} \\ &= \sqrt{\frac{2\, G\cdot M_\text{e} \cdot m}{R_\text{e}\cdot m}} = \sqrt{\frac{2\, G\cdot M_\text{e}}{R_\text{e}}}\end{aligned}$ .