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hram777 [196]
3 years ago
9

65. A length of wire is bent into a closed loop and a magnet is plunged into it, inducing a voltage and, consequently, a current

in the wire. A second length of wire, twice as long, is bent into two loops of wire, and a magnet is similarly plunged into it. Twice the voltage is induced, but the current is the same as that produced in the single loop. Why
Physics
2 answers:
natulia [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Resistance of the second wire is twice the first wire.

Explanation:

Let us first see the formula of resistance;

R = pxL/A

Here L is the lenght of the wire, A the area and p is the resistivity of wire.

As we are given that the length of second wire is double than that of the first wire, hence the resistance of second wire would be double.

Since we have two loop in second case, inducing double voltage but as resistance is doubled so the current would remain same according to ohms law

I = V/R

OLga [1]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The resistance of the second wire is two times that of the first wire. Even though the voltage doubles, current still remain the same.

Explanation:

The voltage induced is directly proportional to the number of loops of the wire. Resistance is directly proportional to the length of the wire as long as all other parametersare constant in the formula R=PL/A. The second wire has twice the length and twice the number of turns than the first wire.

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Arisa [49]

Answer:

31.6\:\mathrm{m/s}

Explanation:

The elastic potential energy of a spring is given by Us=\frac{1}{2}kx^2, where k is the spring constant of the spring and x is displacement from point of equilibrium.

When released, this potential energy will be converted into kinetic energy. Kinetic energy is given by KE=\frac{1}{2}mv^2, where m is the mass of the object and v is the object's velocity.

Thus, we have:

Us=KE,\\\frac{1}{2}kx^2=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

Substituting given values, we get:

\frac{1}{2}\cdot 50\cdot 0.2^2=\frac{1}{2}\cdot 0.002\cdot v^2,\\v^2=\frac{50\cdot 0.2^2}{0.002},\\v^2=1000,\\v\approx \boxed{31.6\:\mathrm{m/s}}

4 0
3 years ago
An airplane is flying in a horizontal circle at a speed of 480 km/h. If its wings are tilted 40° to the horizontal, what is the
guajiro [1.7K]

Answer:

r = 2161.9 m

Explanation:

Aerodynamic lift(L) is perpendicular to the wing, which is tilted 40 degrees to the horizontal.

Since the plane is moving in a horizontal circle, the vertical component of the lift must cancel the weight W of the airplane, but the horizontal component is the centripetal force that keeps it in a circle.

L is perpendicular to wing at angle θ with respect to horizontal

Thus,

Vertical component of lift is:

L cosθ = W = mg

Thus, m = L cosθ / g - - - - (eq1)

Horizontal component of lift is:

L sinθ = centripetal force = mv² / r - - - - (eq2)

Combining equations 1 and 2,we have;

L sinθ = (L cosθ / g)(v² / r)

L cancels out on both sides to give;

tanθ = v²/ rg

r = v² / (g tanθ)

We are given;

velocity; v = 480 km/hr = 480 x 10/36 = 133.33 m/s

r = 133.33²/[(9.8) tan(40)] = 2161.9 m

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3 years ago
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Answer:

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Explanation:

Question 1)

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Question 2)

126lbs to N

126lbs(\frac{4.45N}{1lb} )\\\\=126(4.45N)\\\\=506.7N

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