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rodikova [14]
3 years ago
11

I need help finding the acceleration.

Physics
2 answers:
Mila [183]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Acceleration(a) = F/m

a = 100/10

a = 10 m/s²

Sladkaya [172]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Second law of motion.

Explanation:

According to second law of motion Force is equals to mass multiplied by acceleration.

Here, Mass is given which is 10 kilograms.

         Force is given which is 100 Newton.

So, by putting the values of mass and force in the formula of second law of motion we will get the value of acceleration which is 10 meters per second per second.

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A force of 30n is applied to a screwdriver to pry the lid off of a can of paint. The screwdriver applies 75n of force to the lid
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]
The mechanical advantage of the screwdriver that is being described above is equal to 75N. This means that for every 30N that is applied on the screwdriver, this simple machine would in turn apply 75N of force to the lid of the can. 
3 0
3 years ago
What must be the length of a simple pendulum if its oscillation frequency is to be equal to that of an air-track glider of mass
Anvisha [2.4K]

Answer:

the length of the simple pendulum is 0.25 m.

Explanation:

Given;

mass of the air-track glider, m = 0.25 kg

spring constant, k = 9.75 N/m

let the length of the simple pendulum = L

let the frequency of the air-track glider which is equal to frequency of simple pendulum = F

The oscillation frequency of air-track glider is calculated as;

F = \frac{1}{2\pi } \sqrt{\frac{k}{m} } \\\\F = \frac{1}{2\pi } \sqrt{\frac{9.75}{0.25} } \\\\F = 0.994 \ Hz

The frequency of the simple pendulum is given as;

F = \frac{1}{2\pi} \sqrt{\frac{g}{l} } \\\\2\pi(F) = \sqrt{\frac{g}{l} } \\\\2\pi (0.994) = \sqrt{\frac{9.8}{l} } \\\\6.2455 = \sqrt{\frac{9.8}{l} } \\\\(6.2455)2 = \frac{9.8}{l} \\\\39.006 = \frac{9.8}{l} \\\\l = \frac{9.8}{39.006} \\\\l = 0.25 \ m

Thus, the length of the simple pendulum is 0.25 m.

8 0
2 years ago
The base of a hexagonal prism has an apothem measuring 10 inches and an area of 346.41 square inches. the prism is 12 inches tal
tigry1 [53]

The approximate lateral area of the prism is determined as 831 square inches.

<h3>What is lateral area of the hexagonal prism?</h3>

The lateral area of the hexagonal prism is calculated as follows;

LA = PH

where;

  • P is perimeter of the prism
  • H is height

A = ¹/₂Pa

where;

  • a is apothem = 10 inches
  • A is base area = 346.41 in²

346.41 = ¹/₂(10)P

346.41 = 5P

P = 346.41/5

P = 69.282 inches

LA = PH

LA = 69.282 x 12

LA = 831.38 in²

Learn more about lateral area of prism here: brainly.com/question/296674

#SPJ4

8 0
2 years ago
Distance and direction of an objects change in position from starting point
Tju [1.3M]

Answer:

An object changes position if it moves relative to a reference point. The change in position is determined by the distance and direction of an object's change in position from the starting point (displacement). Direction • Direction is the line, or path along which something is moving, pointing, or aiming.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
True or false?
Ksju [112]

1. False

Explanation: it's exactly the opposite. In fact, Lenz's law states that the induced current and the induced emf in a conductor are generated in such a direction that opposes to the change in magnetic flux through the coil. This is summarized by the negative sign in the Faraday's Newmann Lenz law:

\epsilon= -\frac{d\Phi }{dt}

where \epsilon is the emf induced and \frac{d\Phi}{dt} is the rate of change of magnetic flux through the coil.

Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of energy. In fact, we have:

- If the magnetic flux through a coil is increasing, then the induced current has a direction such that the magnetic field generated by the coil is opposite to the direction of the external magnetic field, in order to decrease the total flux

- If the magnetic flux through a coil is decreasing, then the induced current has a direction such that the magnetic field generated by the coil is in the same direction as the external field, in order to increase the total flux

2. False

Explanation: the magnetic flux through a surface is given by

\Phi = BA cos \theta

where

B is the magnitude of the magnetic field

A is the surface area

\theta is the angle between the direction of B and the normal vector to the surface

As we see, the magnetic flux depends not only on B and A, but also on the orientation of the coil with respect to the magnetic field.

3. False

Explanation:

- Sound waves are mechanical waves: mechanical waves are waves consisting of oscillations of the particles in a medium. Due to their nature, therefore, mechanical waves can propagate only in the presence of a medium

- Electromagnetic waves are NOT mechanical waves: they consist of oscillations of electric and magnetic fields, in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. Since em waves are not mechanical waves, they do NOT need a medium to propagate, since they can also travel through a vacuum; therefore the original statement is false.

5 0
3 years ago
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