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maw [93]
3 years ago
6

Velocity of a machine is always greater than mechanical advantage? why​

Physics
1 answer:
MrRa [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:The mechanical advantage of a machine is always less than its velocity ratio.It is because mechanical advantage decreases due to the friction and weight of moving parts of the machine, but the velocity ratio remains constant.

Explanation: hope this helps

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Imagine that you are working as a roller coaster designer. You want to build a record breaking coaster that goes 70.0 m/s at the
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Wow !  This is not simple.  At first, it looks like there's not enough information, because we don't know the mass of the cars.  But I"m pretty sure it turns out that we don't need to know it.

At the top of the first hill, the car's potential energy is

                                  PE = (mass) x (gravity) x (height) .

At the bottom, the car's kinetic energy is

                                 KE = (1/2) (mass) (speed²) .

You said that the car's speed is 70 m/s at the bottom of the hill,
and you also said that 10% of the energy will be lost on the way
down.  So now, here comes the big jump.  Put a comment under
my answer if you don't see where I got this equation:

                                   KE = 0.9  PE

        (1/2) (mass) (70 m/s)² = (0.9) (mass) (gravity) (height)     

Divide each side by (mass): 

               (0.5) (4900 m²/s²) = (0.9) (9.8 m/s²) (height)

(There goes the mass.  As long as the whole thing is 90% efficient,
the solution will be the same for any number of cars, loaded with
any number of passengers.)

Divide each side by (0.9):

               (0.5/0.9) (4900 m²/s²) = (9.8 m/s²) (height)

Divide each side by (9.8 m/s²):

               Height = (5/9)(4900 m²/s²) / (9.8 m/s²)

                          =  (5 x 4900 m²/s²) / (9 x 9.8 m/s²)

                          =  (24,500 / 88.2)  (m²/s²) / (m/s²)

                          =        277-7/9    meters
                                  (about 911 feet)
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3 years ago
8.) If a car moving at 50km/h skids 15m with locked brakes, how far does the same car moving at 100km/h
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(8) A car starting with a speed <em>v</em> skids to a stop over a distance <em>d</em>, which means the brakes apply an acceleration <em>a</em> such that

0² - <em>v</em>² = 2 <em>a</em> <em>d</em> → <em>a</em> = - <em>v</em>² / (2<em>d</em>)

Then the car comes to rest over a distance of

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Doubling the starting speed gives

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so the distance traveled is quadrupled, and it would move a distance of 4 • 15 m = 60 m.

Alternatively, you can explicitly solve for the acceleration, then for the distance:

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0² - (13.9 m/s)² = 2 <em>a</em> (15 m) → <em>a</em> ≈ -6.43 m/s²

So the same car starting at 100 km/h ≈ 27.8 m/s skids to stop over a distance <em>d</em> such that

0² - (27.8 m/s)² = 2 (-6.43 m/s²) <em>d</em> → <em>d</em> ≈ 60 m

(9) Pushing the lever down 1.2 m with a force of 50 N amounts to doing (1.2 m) (50 N) = 60 J of work. So the load on the other end receives 60 J of potential energy. If the acceleration due to gravity is taken to be approximately 10 m/s², then the load has a mass <em>m</em> such that

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<em>m</em> = (60 J) / ((10 m/s²) (1.2 m)) = 5 kg

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