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Furkat [3]
3 years ago
11

A force of 1.5 × 102 N is exerted on a charge of 1.4 × 10–7 C that is traveling at an angle of 75° to a magnetic field.

Physics
2 answers:
hoa [83]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: B

Explanation:

Marysya12 [62]3 years ago
6 0

Option (B) is correct.The magnetic field strength=8.5 x 10² T

Explanation:

the magnetic force Fm is given by

Fm= q V B sinθ

q= charge=1.4 x 10⁻⁷ C

v= velocity= 1.3 x 10⁶ m/s

B= magnetic field strength

Fm= magnetic force= 1.5 x 10² N

θ=75°

so 1.5 x 10²=(1.4 x 10⁻⁷) (1.3 x 10⁶ ) (B) sin75

B=8.5 x 10² T

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How far will you travel if you run for 10. minutes at 2.0 m/s?
oee [108]
We know that 1 minute= 60 seconds (or 1 min= 60 s).

10 min* (60 s/ 1 min)* (2.0 m/ 1 s)= 1,200 m.
(Note that the units cancel out so you get the answer)

The final answer is 1,200 m.

Hope this helps~
6 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP!!
defon
The right answer is A
7 0
3 years ago
Two open organ pipes, sounding together, produce a beat frequency of 8.0 Hz . The shorter one is 2.08 m long. How long is the ot
s344n2d4d5 [400]

Answer:

The length of the longer pipe is L = 2.30 m

Explanation:

Given that:

Two open organ pipes, sounding together, produce a beat frequency of 8.0 Hz . The shorter one is 2.08 m long.

How long is the other pipe?

From above;

The formula for the frequency of open ended pipes can be expressed as:

f = \dfrac{nv}{2L}

where n = 1 ( since half wavelength exist between those two pipes)

v = 343 m/s  and L = 2.08 m

Thus, the shorter pipe produces a frequency of :

f = \dfrac{1*343}{2*2.08}

f = \dfrac{343}{4.16}

f =82.45 \ Hz

Also; we know that the beat frequency was given as 8.0 Hz

Then,

The lower frequency of the longer pipe = ( 82.45 - 8.0 )Hz

The lower frequency of the longer pipe = 74.45 Hz

Finally;

From the above equation; make Length L the subject of the formula. Then,

The length of the longer pipe is L = \dfrac{nv}{2f}

The length of the longer pipe is L = \dfrac{1*343}{2*74.45}

The length of the longer pipe is L = \dfrac{343}{148.9}

The length of the longer pipe is L = 2.30 m

6 0
3 years ago
A heat engine exhausts 8900 j of heat while performing 2800 j of useful work. part a what is the efficiency of this engine?
Anuta_ua [19.1K]
Given: Heat Qout means useful work = 2800 J

           Heat Qin = 8900 J

Required; Efficiency = ?

Formula: Efficiency = Qout/Qin = x 100%

                               = 2800 J/8900 J = 0.3146 X 100 %

               Efficiency = 31.46%


7 0
3 years ago
I need help on 18,19,20 and 21
Dmitriy789 [7]
When a relationship between two different things is shown in a fraction it is a ratio.

hope this helps :)



8 0
3 years ago
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