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eimsori [14]
3 years ago
5

Before a ball rolls down a hill, it has gravitational potential energy. Before a rubber ball bounces away from a surface, it has

elastic potential energy.
From the list below, select the type of potential energy that allows you to throw a ball.

A.
elastic potential energy
B.
chemical potential energy
C.
gravitational potential energy
D.
human potential energy
Physics
2 answers:
andrew11 [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

chemical potential energy

Explanation:

study island

rjkz [21]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

human potential energy

Explanation:

It is given that, before a ball rolls down a hill, it has gravitational potential energy.

Before a rubber ball bounces away from a surface, it has elastic potential energy.  

Human potential energy allows us to throw a ball. While throwing a ball, we have to apply some force by our muscles in order to done some work.Also, we know that the capacity to do work is called energy.

Hence, the correct option is (D) " human potential energy ".

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Four identical masses m are evenly spaced on a frictionless 1D track. The first mass is sent at speed v toward the other three.
SpyIntel [72]

Answer:

The speed decreases 75%.

Explanation:

  • Since no friction present, assuming no external forces acting during the three collisions, total momentum must be conserved.
  • For the first collission, only mass 1 is moving before it, so we can write the following equation:

       p_{i} = p_{f} = m*v_{o}    (1)

  • Since both masses are identical, and they stick together after the collision, we can express the final momentum as follows:

       p_{f1} = 2*m*v_{1}    (2)

  • From (1) and (2) we get:
  • v₁ = v₀/2  (3)
  • Since the masses are moving on a frictionless 1D track, the speed of the set of mass 1 and 2 combined together before colliding with mass 3 is just v₁, so the initial momentum prior the second collision (p₁) can be expressed as follows:

       p_{1} = 2*m*v_{1} = 2*m*\frac{v_{o} }{2}  = m*v (4)

  • Since after the collision the three masses stick together, we can express this final momentum (p₂) as follows:

        p_{2} = 3*m*v_{2}  (5)

  • From (4) and (5) we get:
  • v₂ = v₀/3  (6)
  • Since the masses are moving on a frictionless 1D track, the speed of the set of mass 1, 2 and 3 combined together before colliding with mass 4 is just v₂, so the initial momentum prior the third collision (p₂) can be expressed as follows:

      p_{2} = 3*m*v_{2} = 3*m*\frac{v_{o} }{3}  = m*v (7)

  • Since after the collision the four masses stick together, we can express this final momentum (p₃) as follows:

       p_{3} = 4*m*v_{3}  (8)

  • From (7) and (8) we get:
  • v₃ = v₀/4
  • This means that after the last collision, the speed will have been reduced to a 25% of the initial value, so it will have been reduced in a 75% regarding the initial value of v₀.
5 0
3 years ago
What's the formula to calculate the radius of pendulum bob ​
Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer:

The combination, L = I / (m * R) , that appears in the equation for the period of a physical pendulum, is called radius of oscillations

Hope this helps :]

7 0
3 years ago
A=i+j-k<br>b=j+k<br><img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=a%20%3D%20i%20%2B%20j%20-%20k%20%20%20%5C%5C%20b%20%3D%20j%20%2B%20k" id="
olga nikolaevna [1]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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4 0
3 years ago
A power plant produces 1000 MW to supply a city 40 km away. Current flows from the power plant on a single wire of resistance 0.
nikitadnepr [17]

Answer:

Current = 8696 A

Fraction of power lost = \dfrac{80}{529} = 0.151

Explanation:

Electric power is given by

P=IV

where I is the current and V is the voltage.

I=\dfrac{P}{V}

Using values from the question,

I=\dfrac{1000\times10^6 \text{ W}}{115\times10^3\text{ V}} = 8696 \text{ A}

The power loss is given by

P_\text{loss} = I^2R

where R is the resistance of the wire. From the question, the wire has a resistance of 0.050\Omega per km. Since resistance is proportional to length, the resistance of the wire is

R = 0.050\times40 = 2\Omega

Hence,

P_\text{loss} = \left(\dfrac{200000}{23}\right)^2\times2

The fraction lost = \dfrac{P_\text{loss}}{P}=\left(\dfrac{200000}{23}\right)^2\times2\div (1000\times10^6)=\dfrac{80}{529}=0.151

3 0
3 years ago
TESE
Dmitry [639]

equal and opposite reaction.

5 0
3 years ago
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