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Nata [24]
3 years ago
6

A billiard ball of mass m moving with speed v1=1 m/s collides head-on with a second ball of mass 2m which is at rest. What is th

e velocity of the ball of mass 2m after the collision?
Physics
1 answer:
Soloha48 [4]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The velocity of mass 2m is  v_B = 0.67 m/s

Explanation:

From the question w are told that

     The mass of the billiard ball A is =m

     The initial speed  of the billiard ball A = v_1 =1 m/s

    The mass of the billiard ball B is = 2 m

    The initial speed  of the billiard ball  B = 0

Let the final speed  of the billiard ball A  = v_A

Let The finial speed  of the billiard ball  B = v_B

      According to the law of conservation of Energy

                 \frac{1}{2} m (v_1)^2 + \frac{1}{2} 2m (0) ^ 2 = \frac{1}{2} m (v_A)^2 + \frac{1}{2} 2m (v_B)^2

              Substituting values  

                \frac{1}{2} m (1)^2  = \frac{1}{2} m (v_A)^2 + \frac{1}{2} 2m (v_B)^2

Multiplying through by \frac{1}{2}m

                1 =v_A^2 + 2 v_B ^2 ---(1)

    According to the law of conservation of Momentum

            mv_1 + 2m(0) = mv_A + 2m v_B

    Substituting values

            m(1)  = mv_A + 2mv_B

Multiplying through by m

           1 = v_A + 2v_B ---(2)

making v_A subject of the equation 2

            v_A = 1 - 2v_B

Substituting this into equation 1

         (1 -2v_B)^2 + 2v_B^2 = 1

         1 - 4v_B + 4v_B^2 + 2v_B^2 =1

          6v_B^2  -4v_B +1 =1

          6v_B^2 -4v_B =0

Multiplying through by \frac{1}{v_B}

          6v_B -4 = 0

            v_B = \frac{4}{6}

            v_B = 0.67 m/s

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Here's how this statement can be concluded from the equations for a simple harmonic motion (SHM.)

In an SHM, if the period is T, then the angular velocity of the SHM would be

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The velocity of the mass at time t would be:

\mathbf{v}(t) = A\,\omega \, \cos(\omega\, t).

The acceleration of the mass at time t would be:

\mathbf{a}(t) = -A\,\omega^2\, \sin(\omega \, t).

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Since \displaystyle \omega = \frac{2\pi}{T}, it can be concluded that:

\begin{aligned} k &= m \, \omega^2 = m \left(\frac{2\pi}{T}\right)^2\end{aligned}.

For the first mass m_1, if the time period is T_1, then the spring constant would be:

\displaystyle k = m_1\, \left(\frac{2\pi}{T_1}\right)^2.

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\displaystyle k = m_2\, \left(\frac{2\pi}{T_2}\right)^2.

Since the two springs are the same, the two spring constants should be equal to each other. That is:

\displaystyle m_1\, \left(\frac{2\pi}{T_1}\right)^2 = k = m_2\, \left(\frac{2\pi}{T_2}\right)^2.

Simplify to obtain:

\displaystyle \frac{m_2}{m_1} = \left(\frac{T_2}{T_1}\right)^2.

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Answer:

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c) The work  is equal in both pistons

Explanation:

Pascal´s Principle can be applied in the hydraulic press:

If we apply a small force (F₁) on a small area piston (A₁), then, a pressure (P) is generated that is transmitted equally to all the particles of the liquid until it reaches a larger area piston and therefore a force (F₂) can be exerted that is proportional to the area(A₂) of the piston.

Pressure is defined as the force per unit area:

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P₁=P₂

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Data

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r₂= 15 cm = 0.15 m

F₂=  13300N

Area of the pistons (A₁,A₂)

A=π*r² : Area of the circle

A₁ = π*(0.05)²=7.85*10⁻³ m²

A₂= π*(0.15)²= 70.69*10⁻³ m²

a) Force that compressed air must exert to lift a car weighing 13300 N

We replace data in the formula (2)

\frac{F_{1} }{A_{1} } =\frac{F_{2} }{A_{2} }

F_{1} = \frac{13300*7.85*10^{-3} }{70.69*10^{-3} }

F₁ =  1.48 x 10³ N

b) Air pressure produced by F₁

We replace data in the formula (1)

P=\frac{F}{A}

F₁ =  1.48 x 10³ N , A₁ = 7.85*10⁻³ m²

P=\frac{1.48*10^{3} }{7.85*10^{-3} }

P= 1.88*10⁵ Pa

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