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3 years ago

1. A disturbance that is caused by vibrations and travels through a medium

Physics

1 answer:

Artemon [7]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Sound

Explanation:

Sound is a longitudinal wave produced due to disturbance of particles of medium.

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An airplane is moving at 350 km/hr. If a bomb is

Molodets [167]

Answers:

a) -171.402 m/s

b) 17.49 s

c) 1700.99 m

Explanation:

We can solve this problem with the following equations:

$y=y_{o}+V_{oy}t-\frac{1}{2}gt^{2}$ (1)

$x=V_{ox}t$ (2)

$V_{f}=V_{oy}-gt$ (3)

Where:

$y=0 m$ is the bomb's final jeight

$y_{o}=1.5 km \frac{1000 m}{1 km}=1500 m$ is the bomb'e initial height

$V_{oy}=0 m/s$ is the bomb's initial vertical velocity, since the airplane was moving horizontally

$t$ is the time

$g=9.8 m/s^{2}$ is the acceleration due gravity

$x$ is the bomb's range

$V_{ox}=350 \frac{km}{h} \frac{1000 m}{1 km} \frac{1 h}{3600 s}=97.22 m/s$ is the bomb's initial horizontal velocity

$V_{f}$ is the bomb's fina velocity

Knowing this, let's begin with the answers:

With the conditions given above, equation (1) is now written as:

$y_{o}=\frac{1}{2}gt^{2}$ (4)

Isolating $t$ :

$t=\sqrt{\frac{2 y_{o}}{g}}$ (5)

$t=\sqrt{\frac{2 (1500 m)}{9.8 m/s^{2}}}$ (6)

$t=17.49 s$ (7)

<h3>a) Final velocity</h3>

Since $V_{oy}=0 m/s$ , equation (3) is written as:

$V_{f}=-gt$ (8)

$V_{f}=-(97.22)(17.49 s)$ (9)

$V_{f}=-171.402 m/s$ (10) The negative sign ony indicates the direction is downwards

<h3>c) Range</h3>

Substituting (7) in (2):

$x=(97.22 m/s)(17.49 s)$ (11)

$x=1700.99 m$ (12)

5 0

3 years ago

Which kind of road surface is easier to see when driving at night, a pebbled uneven surface or a mirror smooth surface?

pshichka [43]

A pebbled, uneven road would be easier to see at night because it minimizes the reflection of light from car’s light coming in the opposite direction. It is difficult to see when driving on the rainy day because the roadway reflects light from cars coming in the opposite <span>directions.</span>

6 0

3 years ago

The value of 1.0004 to the power 1 by 2 using Binomial approximation is

IgorLugansk [536]

Given:

The given value is $(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}$ .

To find:

The value of the given expression by using the Binomial approximation.

Explanation:

We have,

$(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}$

It can be written as:

$(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=(1+0.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}$

$(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=1+\dfrac{1}{2}\times 0.0004$ $[\because (1+x)^n=1+nx]$

$(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=1+0.0002$

$(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=1.0002$

Therefore, the approximate value of the given expression is 1.0002.

3 0

3 years ago

1. The mass defect of iron-56 is 0.52875 amu. What is the energy equivalent of this mass?

Delvig [45]

Answer:

Hello! Your answer is BELOW

Explanation:

1.About 91.754% of all iron is iron-56. Of all nuclides, iron-56 has the lowest mass per nucleon. With 8.8 MeV binding energy per nucleon, iron-56 is one of the most tightly bound nuclei.

2.The atomic weight of lead is quite variable in nature because the three heaviest isotopes are the stable end-products of the radioactive decay of uranium (238U to 206Pb and 235U to 207Pb) and thorium (232Th to 208Pb).

3.Mass defect for uranium-238 is 3.983 × 10-25 kg.

4.Energy and Mass Are Relative

The equation E = mc^2 states that the amount of energy possessed by an object is equal to its mass multiplied by the square of the speed of light.

Hope I helped! Ask me anything if you have any questions. Brainiest plz!♥ Hope you make a 100%. Have a nice morning! -Amelia♥

7 0

3 years ago

This is my question. I need the answer stat.

Kipish [7]

Answer:

Explanatioyour answers look right, but if there has , has to be another answer its a , but your answers are right

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers