All categories

3 years ago

Can a vector have a component equal to zero and still have nonzero magnitude?

Physics

1 answer:

ExtremeBDS [4]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

in a 2-D plane a vector can be resolved into its rectangular components. These are rectangular components because these are at right angles to each other. One component is directed along x-axis and is the termed as horizontal component and the other one is directed along y-axis and is termed as vertical component.

Sometimes, the vector is directed entirely along x-axis or y-axis. When the vector is along x-axis or parallel to x-axis all of its magnitude will be directed along horizontal component while its vertical component will be zero. Similarly, for a vector along y-axis, the horizontal component will be zero and the entire magnitude will be along y-axis.

Consider a vector V of magnitude 5 Newtons along x-axis. Since, V is along axis the angle made with the positive x-axis is 0.

The components of a vector are calculated as:

Horizontal component = V cos θ

Vertical component = V sin θ

θ is the angle made with positive x-axis in anti-clockwise direction which is 0 in this case.

So, the components of our vector will be:

Horizontal component = 5 cos(0) = 5

Vertical component = 5 sin(0) = 0

We have just showed, even if one of the components of a vector is 0, it still can have a non-zero magnitude.

The magnitude of a vector will be zero only when all of its components are equal to 0.

You might be interested in

(BRAINLIEST)

tankabanditka [31]

Cm=C
Gram=G
s=S

ITs CGS unit.

Hence

CGS unit of Joules is erg.
1J=1×10^7ergs

$\\ \sf\longmapsto 15J=15\times 10^7ergs$

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

If the magnetic field is held constant at 3.0 T and the loop is pulled out of the region that contains the field in 0.2 s, what

kap26 [50]

Answer:

emf = 15 * Area and if A is given in square meters, the units of the emf will be Volts

Explanation:

Assuming that the area of the loop of current (A) is known, the magnitude of the induced emf can be calculated using Faraday-Lenz's Law:

$emf=|-\frac{\Delta\,\Phi}{\Delta \,t} |=|\frac{A\,B}{\Delta \,t}|=|\frac{A\,(3)}{0.2}|=15\,A$

and if the area (A) is given in square meters, the emf will directly come in units of Volts.

5 0

4 years ago

Which sizes influence the adhesive and rolling friction?

julsineya [31]

juju on that beat

Explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

Why do dogs bark when new people come to their home?

pashok25 [27]

Your answer is most likely:
<span>B) They are protective of their owners. </span>

3 0

3 years ago

The n = 2 to n = 6 transition in the bohr hydrogen atom corresponds to the ________ of a photon with a wavelength of ________ nm

Colt1911 [192]

The energy levels of the hydrogen atom are quantized and their energy is given by the approximated formula
$E=- \frac{13.6}{n^2} [eV]$
where n is the number of the level.

In the transition from n=2 to n=6, the variation of energy is
$\Delta E=E(n=6)-E(n=2)=-13.6 ( \frac{1}{6^2}- \frac{1}{2^2} )[eV]=3.02 eV$
Since this variation is positive, it means that the system has gained energy, so it must have absorbed a photon.

The energy of photon absorbed is equal to this $\Delta E$ . Converting it into Joule,
$\Delta E=3.02 eV=4.84 \cdot 10^{-19}J$
The energy of the photon is
$E=hf$
where h is the Planck constant while f is its frequency. Writing $\Delta E=hf$ , we can write the frequency f of the photon:
$f= \frac{\Delta E}{h}= \frac{4.84 \cdot 10^{-19}J}{6.63 \cdot 10^{-34}m^2 kg/s}=7.29 \cdot 10^{14}Hz$

The photon travels at the speed of light, $c=3 \cdot 10^8 m/s$ , so its wavelength is
$\lambda = \frac{c}{f}= \frac{3 \cdot 10^8 m/s}{7.29 \cdot 10^{14}Hz}=4.11 \cdot 10^{-7}m=411 nm$

So, the initial sentence can be completed as:
The n = 2 to n = 6 transition in the bohr hydrogen atom corresponds to the "absorption" of a photon with a wavelength of "411" nm.

4 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers