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Jobisdone [24]
3 years ago
15

The electromagnetic wave that CT scans are based on is called a

Physics
1 answer:
kherson [118]3 years ago
6 0
X-ray)
because Electromagnetic waves are in act
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Find the magnitude of a fourth force on the stone that will make the vector sum of the four forces zero.
Tanya [424]
100cos30° + 80cos120° + 40cos233° + Dx = 0 
<span>Dx = -22.53 N </span>

<span>y components: </span>
<span>100sin30° + 80sin120° + 40sin233° + Dy = 0 </span>
<span>Dy = -87.34 N </span>

<span>magnitude of D: </span>
<span>sqrt[(-22.53)² + (-87.34)²] </span>
<span>90.2 N </span>

<span>direction of D: </span>
<span>arctan[(-87.34)/(-22.53)] </span>
<span>75.5° ref, but since Dx and Dy are both negative, we know this vector is in QIV: </span>
<span>360 - 75.5° = 284.5°</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Wow ;-; im not gonna even try
kari74 [83]

Answer:

ok

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A hoop and a solid disc are relased from rest
Murljashka [212]

Answer:

1) The hoop and a solid disc rolling without slipping down an incline plane.

Their final velocities are proportional to their moment of inertia.

The condition for moment of inertia: v = ωR

We will use conservation of energy.

<u>For the hoop:</u>

K_1 + U_1 = K_2 + U_2\\0 + m_hgh = \frac{1}{2}m_hv_h^2 + \frac{1}{2}I\omega_h^2 + 0

They are released from rest, so their initial kinetic energy is zero. And when they reach the bottom, their final potential energy is also zero.

The moment of inertia of a hoop is

I_h = m_hR^2

Let's continue with the energy equations:

m_h gh = \frac{1}{2}m_hv_h^2 + \frac{1}{2}(m_hR^2)(\frac{v_h^2}{R^2})\\m_hgh = \frac{1}{2}m_hv_h^2 + \frac{1}{2}m_hv_h^2\\m_hgh = m_hv_h^2\\v_h = \sqrt{gh}

Similarly <u>for the solid disk</u> with a moment of inertia of (1/2)mR^2:

K_1 + U_1 = K_2 + U_2\\m_dgh = \frac{1}{2}m_dv_d^2 + \frac{1}{2}I_d\omega_d^2\\m_dgh = \frac{1}{2}m_dv_d^2 + \frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{2}m_dR^2)(\frac{v_d^2}{R^2})\\m_dgh = \frac{1}{2}m_dv_d^2 + \frac{1}{4}m_dv_d^2\\m_dgh = \frac{3}{4}m_dv_d^2\\v_d = \sqrt{\frac{4gh}{3}}

Comparing the final velocities, we can conclude that the solid disk reaches the bottom first.

2) The angular acceleration of the pebble is equal to the angular acceleration of the tire, since they stuck together. We can deduce the angular acceleration of the tire from the linear acceleration of the bicycle.

The kinematics equations states that

v = v_0 + at\\4.47 = 0 + 2a\\a = 2.235 ~m/s^2

where a is the linear acceleration.

The relation with the angular and linear acceleration is

a = \alpha R

where R is the radius of the tire. Since it is not given in the question, we will leave it as R.

The angular acceleration of the small pebble is

\alpha = 2.235/R ~m/s^2

4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Un motor realiza un trabajo de 5000 j en 20 s a) ¿ cual es la potencia del motor ?B)¿en cuanto tiempo desarollan el mismo trabaj
zimovet [89]

Answer:

a. Potencia = 250 Watts

b. Tiempo = 333.33 segundos

Explanation:

Dados los siguientes datos;

Energía = 5000 Joules

Tiempo = 20 segundos.

Para encontrar el poder;

Poder = energía/tiempo

Potencia = 5000/20

Potencia = 250 Watts

B. ¿Para saber cuánto tarda una máquina en realizar el mismo trabajo;

Dado: potencia = 15 W

Tiempo = energía/poder

Tiempo = 5000/15

Tiempo = 333.33 segundos

3 0
3 years ago
Which best illustrates the gravitational force in action?
Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

A picture of a baseball being thrown tworad a batter at home plate.

5 0
4 years ago
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