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Amanda [17]
4 years ago
8

True or false? the potential energy of a membrane potential comes solely from the difference in electrical charge across the mem

brane.
Physics
1 answer:
bazaltina [42]4 years ago
7 0
The statement would be False. T<span>he potential energy of a membrane potential comes solely from the difference in electrical charge across the membrane. In addition to that, membrane potential actually regulates the potential difference of nerve cells across the membrane estimated at 70 mV.</span>
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An object with a mass of 2000 kg accelerates 8.3 m/s2 when an unknown force is applied to it. What is the amount of the force?
exis [7]

Answer:

<h2>16,600 N</h2>

Explanation:

The force acting on an object given it's mass and acceleration can be found by using the formula

force = mass × acceleration

From the question we have

force = 2000 × 8.3

We have the final answer as

<h3>16,600 N</h3>

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Objects at the "Human Scale" are held in their shapes primarily by which force:
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Use the law of conservation of energy (assume no friction nor air resistance) to determine the kinetic and potential energy at t
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Answer:

Part A

1) At the starting point, we have;

PE = 40,000 J

2) PE = 0 J, KE = 40,000 J

3) KE = 20,000 J

4) PE = 15,000 J

5) KE = 32,500 J

6) KE = 40,000 J, PE = 0 J

7) KE = 35,000 J

8) KE = 40,000 J, PE = 0 J

Part B

The total Mechanical Energy = ME = 40,000 J

At the final point, we have;

ME = KE + PE = 40,000 J + 0 J = 40,000 J

Explanation:

Part A

By the law of conservation of energy, we have;

ME = PE + KE

Where;

ME = The total Mechanical Energy of the system

PE = The Potential Energy of the system

KE = The Kinetic Energy of the system

Where there is no friction, we have;

At the final stage, KE = 40,000 J. PE = 0 J

Therefore, ME = PE + KE = 40,000 J + 0 J = 40,000 J

1) At the starting point, we have;

KE = 0 J, therefore, PE = ME - KE = 40,000 J - 0 J = 40,000 J

2) At the bottom of the roller coaster, at the same level the PE is taken as PE = 0 J at the final stage, we have;

PE = 0 J, therefore, KE = ME - PE = 40,000 J - 0 J = 40,000 J

3) Where PE = 20,000 J, KE = ME - PE = 40,000 J - 20,000 J = 20,000 J

4) Where KE = 25,000 J, PE = ME - KE = 40,000 J - 25,000 J = 15,000 J

5) Where PE = 7,500 J, KE = ME - PE = 40,000 J - 7,500 J = 32,500 J

6) At the bottom KE = 40,000 J, PE = 0 J

7) Where PE = 5,000 J, KE = ME - PE = 40,000 J - 5,000 J = 35,000 J

8) KE = 40,000 J, PE = 0 J

Part B

The given that there is no friction nor air resistance, the total Mechanical Energy, ME, is constant and equal to the sum of the Potential Energy, PE and the Kinetic Energy, KE, as follows;

ME = KE + PE

At the final point, we have;

ME = 40,000 J + 0 J = 40,000 J

The total Mechanical Energy = ME = 40,000 J

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Why is the rock cycle really a cycle?
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