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BabaBlast [244]
3 years ago
12

A record player turntable initially rotating at 3313 rev/min is braked to a stop at a constant rotational acceleration. The turn

table has a rotational inertia of 0.031kg?m2 . When it is switched off, it slows down to 75% of its initial rotational speed in 4.0 s.
A. How long does it take to come to rest?
B. How much work has to be done on the turntable to bring it to rest?
Physics
1 answer:
Lelechka [254]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a. 16 s b. -1.866 kJ

Explanation:

a. Since the initial rotational speed ω₀= 3313 rev/min = 3313/60 × 2π rad/s = 346.94 rad/s. Its rotational speed becomes ω₁ = 0.75ω₀ in time t = 4 s.

We find it rotational acceleration using α = (ω₁ - ω₀)/t = (0.75ω₀ - ω₀)/t = ω₀(0.75 - 1)/t = -0.25ω₀/t = (-0.25 × 346.94 rad/s)/4 s = -21.68 rad/s².

Since the turntable stops at ω = 0, the time it takes to stop is gotten from

ω = ω₀ + αt and t = (ω - ω₀)/α = (0 - 346.94 rad/s)/-21.68 rad/s² = (-346.94/-21.68) s = 16 s.

So it takes the turntable 16 s to stop.

b. The workdone by the turntable to stop W equals its rotational kinetic energy change.

So, W = 1/2Iω² - 1/2Iω₀² = 1/2 × 0.031 kgm² × 0² - 1/2 × 0.031 kgm² × (346.94 rad/s)² = 0 - 1865.7 J = -1865.7 J = -1.8657 kJ ≅ -1.866 kJ

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A fireboat is to fight fires at coastal areas by drawing seawater with a density of 1030 kg/m3 through a 10-cm-diameter pipe at
GaryK [48]

Answer:

50.93 m/s

199.5 kW

Explanation:

From the question, the nozzle exit diameter = 5 cm, Radius= diameter/2= 5cm/2= 2.5cm. we can convert it to metre for unit consistency= (2.5×0.01)=

0.025m

We can calculate the The cross sectional area of the nozzle as

A= πr^2

A= π ×0.025^2

= 1.9635 ×10^- ³ m²

From the question, the water is moving through the pipe at a rate of 0.1 m /s , then for the water to move through it at a seconds, it must move at

(0.1 / 1.9635 ×10^- ³ m²)

= 50.93 m/s

During the Operation of the pump, the Dynamic energy of the water= potential energy provided there is no loss during the Operation

mgh = 1/2mv²

We can make "h" subject of the formula, which is the height of required head of water

h = (1/2mv²)/mg

h= v² / 2g

h = 50.93² / (2 ×9.81)

h = 132.21m

From the question;

The total irreversible head loss of the system = 3 m,

the given position of nozzle = 3 m

the total head the pump needed=(The total irreversible head loss of the system + the position of the nozzle + required head of water )

=(3 + 3 + 132.21m)

=138.21m

mass of water pumped in a seconds can be calculated since we know that mass is a product of volume and density

Volume= 0.1m³

Density of sea water=1030 kg/m

(0.1 m^3× 1030)

= 103kg

We can calculate the Potential enegry, which is = mgh

= (103 ×9.81 × 138.21)

= 139651.5 Watts

= 139.65kW

To determine required shaft power input to the pump and the water discharge velocity

Energy= efficiency × power

But we are given efficiency of 70 percent, then

139651.5 Watts = 0.7P

=199502.18 Watts

P=199.5 kW

Therefore, the required shaft power input to the pump and the water discharge velocity is 199.5 kW

5 0
2 years ago
Can you please answer these ASAP!
SVEN [57.7K]

Answer:

Let's explain this briefly.

Suppose that we have a piece of ice (this is, solid water) now we give energy to the piece of ice, so the temperature of the ice increases. There is a point where the piece of ice will start a change of phase, at this point the temperature of the ice stops increasing because all the energy we give to the ice is used in the change of phase.

Once we have a complete change of phase, the temperature can increase again, and now we will have liquid water.

If we keep increasing the temperature we will see this happen again, when we have the transition from liquid to gas.

(and a similar thing happen when we have a material in a given phase and we remove heat from the material).

In the images we can see the different changes of phase of water.

1) In the first image we can see the circle in a part where the temperature is constant, so the temperature does not change in this part, which means that there is a change of phase happening.

2) Here we have the circle in a diagonal line, so here the temperature is changing, meaning that we have an increase of temperature in this region.

3) Here we want to know what the x-axis represents, this should rerpesent the energy that is being given to the material (so in some parts we see that the temperature increases and in other parts we see that the material changes of phase)

Then here the correct option is heat over time.

4) The freezing point is the temperature in which the change of phase from liquid to solid happens (or solid to liquid).

In the graph we can see that this change of phase happens at the temperature T = -210°C

Then the correct option is -210°C (The last option)

4 0
2 years ago
Which statement is TRUE concerning the particle arrangement of a solid
Anni [7]
It's packed together
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An object in static equilibrium has a coefficient of static friction as 0.110. If the normal force acting on the object is 95.0
igomit [66]

Answer:

mass = 9.7 kg

Explanation:

As we know that when object is at rest on the ground of flat base then we will have

N - mg = 0

so from here

N = mg

now we have

N = 95 Newton

now from above equation we will have

95 = m\times g

95 = m\times 9.8

m = 9.7 kg

7 0
3 years ago
A solid 200-g block of lead and a solid 200-g block of copper are completely submerged in an aquarium filled with water. Each bl
finlep [7]

Answer:

B. The buoyant force on the copper block is greater than the buoyant force on the lead block.

Explanation:

Given;

mass of lead block, m₁ = 200 g = 0.2 kg

mass of copper block, m₂ = 200 g = 0.2 kg

density of water, ρ = 1 g/cm³

density of lead block, ρ₁ = 11.34 g/cm³

density of copper block, ρ₂ = 8.96 g/cm³

The buoyant force on each block is calculated as;

F_B = mg(\frac{density \ of \ fluid}{density \ of \ object} )

The buoyant force of lead block;

F_{lead} = 0.2*9.8(\frac{1}{11.34} )\\\\F_{lead} = 0.173  \ N

The buoyant force of copper block

F_{copper} = 0.2*9.8(\frac{1}{8.96})\\\\F_{copper} = 0.219  \ N

Therefore, the buoyant force on the copper block is greater than the buoyant force on the lead block

3 0
3 years ago
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