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yKpoI14uk [10]
3 years ago
9

In a “minute to win it” game, cards are placed between cups to stack them. The contestant then pulls the card out in hopes that

they will end with a set of stacked cups. Why does this work?
There is no friction between the card and the cup.


Inertia will keep the top cup from moving very far. Gravity will pull one cup on top of another.


The opening of the cup is so much bigger than the bottom, even though the cup moves they will both be stacked together.


Both cups are moved the same amount by the friction between them and the card.
Physics
2 answers:
Luden [163]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

There is no friction between the card and the cup.

Explanation:

lubasha [3.4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The answer option to your question is A) - There is no friction between the card and the cup.

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A wave has a wavelength of 4.9 m and a velocity of 9.8 m/s. The medium through which this wave is traveling is then heated so th
garri49 [273]

Answer:

the wavelength is 9.8 meters

Explanation:

We can use the relationship:

Velocity = wavelenght*frequency.

Initially we have:

wavelenght = 4.9m

velocity = 9.8m/s

then:

9.8m/s =  4.9m*f

f = 9.8m/s/4.9m =  2*1/s

now, if the velocity is doubled and the frequency remains the same, we have:

2*9.8m/s = wavelenght*2*1/s

wavelenght = (2*9.8m/s)*(1/2)s = 9.8 m

6 0
3 years ago
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A bulb converts 9J of energy in each second from an input of 100J of energy. Calculate efficiency of this light bulb
77julia77 [94]
Efficiency is calculated through dividing the actual mechanical advantage by the hypothetical mechanical advantage:

- the actual mechanical advantage is 9J because that's how much work the light bulb doing

- the hypo. mechanical advantage is 100J. Ideally, in a perfect world, the light bulb can convert 100J input into 100J output, but do to resistance and other factors it is not possible.

\frac{9}{100}  = .09
change the decimal to a percentage:

.09 = 9\%
the light bulb had 9% efficiency
8 0
4 years ago
A new planet is discovered beyond Pluto at a mean distance to the sun of 4004 million miles. Using Kepler's third law, determine
AVprozaik [17]

Answer:

103239.89 days

Explanation:

Kepler's third law states that the square of the orbital period of a planet is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit.

                               a³ / T² = 7.496 × 10⁻⁶  (a.u.³/days²)

where,

a is the distance of the semi-major axis in a.u

T is the orbit time in days

Converting the mean distance of the new planet to astronomical unit (a.u.)

                       1 a.u = 9.296 × 10⁷ miles        

                                      \frac{4004 * 10^{6}}{9.296 * 10^{7}}  =  43.07\ a.u.

Substituting the values into Kepler's third law equation;

                                    \frac{(43.07)^{3}}{T^{2}}  =  7.496 * 10^{-6}  

                                    T^{2} = \frac{(43.07)^{3}}{7.496 * 10^{-6}} (days)²

                                    T^{2} = \sqrt{\frac{(43.07)^{3}}{7.496 * 10^{-6}}}

                                    T = 103239.89 days

An estimate time T for the new planet to travel around the sun in an orbit is 103239.89 days

7 0
3 years ago
I drop a meter stick , and catch it as it falls. If it fell exactly 22 cm, how much did it take me to catch the meter stick (wha
statuscvo [17]
D=Vot+1/2at^2

In this case, there is no initial y velocity so the term Vot=0 so d=1/2at^2

acceleration=acceleration due to gravity=-9.8m/s^2

It falls - 22cm or -0.22m

We have - 0.22=1/2(-9.8)t^2

t^2=(-0.44)/(-9.8)

t=sqrt[0.44/9.8]
3 0
3 years ago
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slamgirl [31]

Answer:

km = 3.24

m = 3,240

dm = 32,400

Explanation:

km = 1000m

m = 10dm

8 0
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