Answer:
Yes, in case of uniform velocity
Explanation:
This is the case of uniform velocity. If a body covers equal displacement in equal intervals of time, then the velocity of a body is said to be ‘Uniform Velocity’. It meas that the velocity of a body remains constant during the motion and it does not change.
Since, acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity.
Therefore, if there is no change in velocity or in other words the change in velocity is zero, then the acceleration is also zero.
a = ΔV/t = 0/t
a = 0 m/s²
So, the acceleration of the body is 0 m/s², but it has a uniform velocity
<u>Hence, it is possible for an object that, object with zero acceleration have velocity, which is the case case of uniform velocity.</u>
Answer:
A. less
Explanation:
The momentum of an object is directly proportional to it mass and velocity. It is the product of mass and velocity of the object. Given as
So the momentum of car,
Momentum of truck,
We know that, mass of car is less than that of truck and velocity of the two are same. It is implied that, momentum of car will be less than that of truck.
Answer:
1006×10^-1kg
Explanation:
Because 1006kgx10^-1 will give you 100.6kg
No work id done by Fn. Even for a block sliding up or down an incline, the normal force does no work. The normal force by definition is petpendicular to the surface,; no component of the normal force is parallel to the motion. Consider a person standing in an elevator.
Arsenic in period 4 group 5.
