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Gwar [14]
3 years ago
9

At which of the following angles will the sunlight received at a location on Earth spread out over the largest area?

Physics
2 answers:
elena55 [62]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

angry????????? irritated with me..

nice

yarga [219]3 years ago
5 0
10 degrees, because 0 degrees will receive the most sunlight, and 10 degrees is closest to 0 degrees.
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n object is undergoing uniform circular motion. Which of the following is/are true? I. The object is moving at constant velocity
Igoryamba

Explanation:

When an object is moving in a circular path, the motion of the object is called uniform circular motion. The object moves under the action of centripetal acceleration. It is given by :

a=\dfrac{v^2}{r}

r is the radius of circular path

v is the speed of the object

In uniform circular motion, the object moves with constant speed. Also, the velocity of the object keeps on changing because it changes direction at every instant of time. Also, the object is accelerating due to change in velocity.

So, the correct options are (b) and (c).

8 0
3 years ago
A circular loop of wire with a radius of 12.0 cm and oriented in the horizontal xy-plane is located in a region of uniform magne
Ulleksa [173]

(a) 34 V

The average emf induced in the loop is given by Faraday-Newmann-Lenz law:

\epsilon = -\frac{\Delta \Phi_B}{\Delta t} (1)

where

\Delta \Phi_B is the variation of magnetic flux through the coil

\Delta t = 2.0 ms = 0.002 s is the time interval

We need to find the magnetic flux before and after. The magnetic flux is given by:

\Phi_B = BA

where

B is the magnetic field intensity

A is the area of the coil

The radius of the coil is r = 12.0 cm = 0.12 m, so its area is

A=\pi r^2 = \pi (0.12 m)^2 = 0.045 m^2

At the beginning, the magnetic field is

B_i = 1.5 T

so the flux is

\Phi_i = B_i A = (1.5 T)(0.045 m^2)=0.068 Wb

while after the removal of the coil, the magnetic field is zero, so the flux is also zero:

\Phi_f = 0

so the variation of magnetic flux is

\Delta \Phi = 0-0.068 Wb=-0.068 Wb

And substituting into (1) we find the average emf in the coil

\epsilon=-\frac{-0.068 Wb}{0.002 s}=34 V

(b) Counterclockwise

In order to understand the direction of the induced current, we have to keep in mind the negative sign in Lenz's law (1), which tells that the direction of the induced current must be such that the magnetic field produced by this current opposes the variation of magnetic flux in the coil.

In this situation, the magnetic flux through the coil is decreasing, since the coil is removed from the field. So, the induced current must be such that it produces a magnetic field whose direction is the same as the direction of the external magnetic field, which is upward along the positive z-direction.

Looking down from above and using the right-hand rule on the loop (thumb: direction of the current, other fingers wrapped: direction of magnetic field), we see that in order to produce at the center of the coil a magnetic field which is along positive z-direction, the induced current must be counterclockwise.

4 0
3 years ago
You cover the following displacements every day going to school: d1=50 m, E and d2=95 m, N. You do this for 12 minutes. a) What
puteri [66]

The speed will be 0.2 m/s and the velocity will be 0 m/s.

Speed = Total Distance / Total time

We have given total distance as ( 50 + 95 ) metres and total time as 12 minutes or we can say 720 seconds.

Speed = 145/ 720 m/s

Speed = 0.2 m/s

Velocity = Total Displacement / Total time

As the initial and final is the home, hence the net displacement is 0 in that case.

In this case also the total time we have given is 12 minutes or we can say 720 seconds.

Velocity = 0 / 720 m/s

Velocity = 0 m/s

So to conclude with we can say that the speed is 0.2 m/s and the velocity is 0 m/s.

Learn more about velocity here:

brainly.com/question/80295?source=archive

#SPJ10

5 0
2 years ago
Kayla and her friends are setting up chairs for a school play each row will contain the same number of chairs Kayla knows that t
LUCKY_DIMON [66]

Answer:

96=8*c

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
An object of known mass M with speed v0 travels toward a wall. The object collides with it and bounces away from the wall in the
Bingel [31]

Neither side of the equation may be used because there are too many unknown quantities before, during, and after the collision

Explanation:

The impulse theorem states that the change in momentum of an object is equal to the impulse, which is the product between the average force applied and the duration of the collision:

\Delta p = F \Delta t

where

\Delta p is the change in momentum

F is the average force

\Delta t is the duration of the collision

In this problem, neither side of the equation can be used to measure the change in momentum. In fact:

- The change in momentum (left side) is given by

\Delta p = m(v-u)

where

m is the mass of the object

u is the initial velocity

v is the final velocity

Here the final velocity is not known, so it's not possible to use this side of the equation

- The impulse (right side) is given by

F\Delta t

here the average force is known, however the duration of the collision is not known, so it's not possible to use this side of the equation.

Learn more about momentum:

brainly.com/question/9484203

#LearnwithBrainly

3 0
3 years ago
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