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3 years ago

A wind turbine has a total input power of 2 500 kW.

Physics

1 answer:

Sonbull [250]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Output power = 500 KW

Explanation:

Given the following data;

Efficiency = 20%

Input power = 2500 KW

To find the output power;

$Efficiency = \frac {Out-put \; power}{In-put \; power} * 100$

Substituting into the equation, we have;

LET Output power = OP

$20 = \frac {OP}{2500} * 100$

Cross-multiplying, we have;

$20 * 2500 = OP * 100$

$50000 = OP * 100$

$OP = \frac {50000}{100}$

Output power = 500 KW

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a race car accelerates uniformly from 18.5 m/s to 46.1m/s in 2.47 seconds detrrmine the acceleration of the car and distance tra

LenaWriter [7]

Because acceleration is constant, the acceleration of the car at any time is the same as its average acceleration over the duration. So

$a=\dfrac{\Delta v}{\Delta t}=\dfrac{46.1\,\frac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s}-18.5\,\frac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s}}{2.47\,\mathrm s}=11.2\,\dfrac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s^2}$

Now, we have that

${v_f}^2-{v_0}^2=2a\Delta x$

so we end up with a distance traveled of

$\left(46.1\,\dfrac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s}\right)^2-\left(18.5\,\dfrac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s}\right)^2=2\left(11.2\,\dfrac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s^2}\right)\Delta x$

$\implies\Delta x=79.6\,\mathrm m$

6 0

3 years ago

Consider two thin, coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b푏 (a

Wittaler [7]

Answer:

electric potential, V = -q(a²- b²)/8π∈₀r³

Explanation:

Question (in proper order)

Consider two thin coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b (b < a) and charges q and -q, respectively. Determine the potential at large distances from the rings

<em>consider the attached diagram below</em>

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the outer charged ring with radius a is as given below

Va = q/4π∈₀ [1/(a² + b²)¹/²]

$Va = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

Also

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the inner charged ring with radius b is

$Vb = \frac{-q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

Sum of the potential at point p is

V = Va + Vb

that is

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } + \frac{-q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }]$

the expression below can be written as the equivalent

$\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + a^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }$

likewise,

$\frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + b^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }$

hence,

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]$

1/r is common to both equation

hence, we have it out and joined to the 4π∈₀ denominator that is outside

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]$

by reciprocal rule

1/a² = a⁻²

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} - {(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2}]$

by binomial expansion of fractional powers

where $(1+a)^{n} =1+na+\frac{n(n-1)a^{2} }{2!}+ \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)a^{3}}{3!}+...$

if we expand the expression we have the equivalent as shown

${(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } )$

also,

${(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )$

the above equation becomes

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [((1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } ) - (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } - 1+\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } +\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]\\\\V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } -\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} }]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * \frac{1}{2r^{2} } *(b^{2} -a^{2} )$

$V = \frac{q}{8\pi e0 r^{3} } * (b^{2} -a^{2} )$

Answer

$V = \frac{q (b^{2} -a^{2} )}{8\pi e0 r^{3} }$

$V = \frac{-q (a^{2} -b^{2} )}{8\pi e0 r^{3} }$

8 0

3 years ago

A 15x10^-6c charge is placed at the origin and a 9x10^-6C charge is placed on the x-axis at x=1.00m. where, on the x-axis is the

Harlamova29_29 [7]

The Electric field is zero at a distance 2.492 cm from the origin.

Let A be point where the charge $15\times10^-6$ C is placed which is the origin.

Let B be the point where the charge $9\times 10^-6$ C is placed. Given that B is at a distance 1 cm from the origin.

Both the charges are positive. But charge at origin is greater than that of B. So we can conclude that the point on the x-axis where the electric field = 0 is after B on x - axis.

i.e., at distance 'x' from B.

Using Coulomb's law, $\frac{kQ_A^2}{d_A^2} = \frac{kQ_B^2}{d_B^2}$ ,