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Fudgin [204]
3 years ago
9

A layer of viscous fluid of constant thickness (no velocity perpenducilar to plate) flows steadily down an infinite, inclined pl

ane. Determine, with the Navier Stokes equations, the flowrate per unit width as a function of flow height.
Engineering
1 answer:
mixer [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

q = (ρg/μ)(sin θ)(h³/3)

Explanation:

I've attached an image of a figure showing the coordinate system.

In this system: the velocity components v and w are equal to zero.

From continuity equation, we know that δu/δx = 0

Now,from the x-component of the navier stokes equation, we have;

-δp/δx + ρg(sin θ) + μ(δ²u/δy²) = 0 - - - - - (eq1)

Due to the fact that we have a free surface, it means we will not have a pressure gradient in the x-component and so δp/δx = 0

Then our eq 1 is now;

ρg(sin θ) + μ(δ²u/δy²) = 0

μ(δ²u/δy²) = -ρg(sin θ)

Divide both sides by μ to get;

(δ²u/δy²) = -(ρg/μ)(sin θ)

Integrating both sides gives;

δu/δy = -(ρg/μ)(sin θ)y + b1 - - - - (eq2)

Now, the shear stress is given by the formula;

τ_yx = μ[δu/δy + δv/δx]

From the diagram, at the free surface,τ_yx = 0 and y = h

This means that δu/δy = 0

Thus, putting 0 for δu/δy in eq 2, we have;

0 = -(ρg/μ)(sin θ)h + b1

b1 = h(ρg/μ)(sin θ)

So, eq 2 is now;

δu/δy = -(ρg/μ)(sin θ)y + h(ρg/μ)(sin θ)

Integrating both sides gives;

u = -[(y²/2) × (ρg/μ)(sin θ)] + h(ρg/μ)(sin θ)y + b2 - - - eq3

Because u = 0 when y = 0, it means that b2 = 0 also because when we plug 0 for u and y into eq3, we will get b2 = 0.

Thus, we now have:

u = -[(y²/2) × (ρg/μ)(sin θ)] + h(ρg/μ)(sin θ)y

Factorizing like terms, we have;

u = (ρg/μ)(sin θ)[hy - y²/2] - - - (eq 4)

The flow rate per unit width is gotten by Integrating eq 4 between the boundaries of h and 0 to give;

∫u = (h,0)∫(ρg/μ)(sin θ)[hy - y²/2]

q = (ρg/μ)(sin θ)[hy²/2 - y³/6] between h and 0

q = (ρg/μ)(sin θ)[h³/2 - h³/6]

q = (ρg/μ)(sin θ)(h³/3)

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Vlad [161]

Answer:

Both Techs A and B

Explanation:

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Some electronic brake control modules can be programmed to the size of the vehicle's new tires to restore proper electronic brake control performance. While others may require replacing the module to match the module's programming to the installed tire size. So, both technicians A and B are correct.

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose the working pressure for a boiler is 10 psig, then what is the corresponding absolute pressure?
yanalaym [24]

Answer:

The corresponding absolute pressure of the boiler is 24.696 pounds per square inch.

Explanation:

From Fluid Mechanics, we remember that absolute pressure (p_{abs}), measured in pounds per square inch, is the sum of the atmospheric pressure and the working pressure (gauge pressure). That is:

p_{abs} = p_{atm}+p_{g} (1)

Where:

p_{atm} - Atmospheric pressure, measured in pounds per square inch.

p_{g} - Working pressured of the boiler (gauge pressure), measured in pounds per square inch.

If we suppose that p_{atm} = 14.696\,psi and p_{g} = 10\,psi, then the absolute pressure is:

p_{abs} = 14.696\,psi+10\,psi

p_{abs} = 24.696\,psi

The corresponding absolute pressure of the boiler is 24.696 pounds per square inch.

8 0
2 years ago
A rigid tank having 25 m3 volume initially contains air having a density of 1.25 kg/m3, then more air is supplied to the tank fr
Hoochie [10]

Answer:

\Delta m = 102.25\,kg

Explanation:

The mass inside the rigid tank before the high pressure stream enters is:

m_{o} = \rho_{air}\cdot V_{tank}

m_{o} = (1.25\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}} )\cdot (25\,m^{3})

m_{o} = 31.25\,kg

The final mass inside the rigid tank is:

m_{f} = \rho \cdot V_{tank}

m_{f} = (5.34\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}} )\cdot (25\,m^{3})

m_{f}= 133.5\,kg

The supplied air mass is:

\Delta m = m_{f}-m_{o}

\Delta m = 133.5\,kg-31.25\,kg

\Delta m = 102.25\,kg

4 0
3 years ago
X cotx expansion using maclaurins theorem.
Lemur [1.5K]

It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.

<h3>What is Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>

The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

<h3>What is the explanation for the above?</h3>

as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:

F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

If F(0) = Cot 0

F(0) = ∝ = 1/0

This is not definitive,

Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.

Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
#SPJ1

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Argue the importance to society of incorporating green building into an engineer's designs, with at least two examples.
stellarik [79]

Answer:

Green Design is your answer

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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