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3 years ago

Two stars that are in the same constellation:

Physics

1 answer:

sammy [17]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

A binary star is a star system consisting of two stars orbiting around their common barycenter.

<h3>❣️(◍Jess bregoli◍)❣️</h3>

#keep learning

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Help with 1 2 and 3 please

geniusboy [140]

1. Amperes, is the SI unit (also a fundamental unit) responsible for current.

2. $I = \frac{q}{t}$ Δq over Δt technically

Rearrange for Δq

I x Δt = Δq

1.5mA x 5 = Δq

Δq = 0.0075

Divide this by the fundamental charge "e"

Electrons: 0.0075 / 1.60 x 10^-19

Electrons: 4.6875 x 10^16 or 4.7 x 10^16

3. So we know that the end resistances will be equal so:

ρ = RA/L

ρL = RA

ρL/A = R

Now we can set up two equations one for the resistance of the aluminum bar and one for the copper: Where 1 represents aluminum and 2 represents copper

$\frac{p1L1}{A1} = \frac{p2L2}{A2}\\$

We are looking for L2 so we can isolate using algebra to get:

$\frac{A2(\frac{P1L1}{A1}) }{P2} = L2$

If you fill in those values you get 0.0205

or 2.05 cm

6 0

3 years ago

Pls help me I don’t get it :(

Ksju [112]

Answer:

2nd and 4th

Explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

The electric field in a region of space increases from 0 to 2150 N/C in 5.00 s. What is the magnitude of the induced magnetic fi

Feliz [49]

To solve this problem we will use the Ampere-Maxwell law, which describes the magnetic fields that result from a transmitter wire or loop in electromagnetic surveys. According to Ampere-Maxwell law:

$\oint \vec{B}\vec{dl} = \mu_0 \epsilon_0 \frac{d\Phi_E}{dt}$

Where,

B= Magnetic Field

l = length

$\mu_0$ = Vacuum permeability

$\epsilon_0$ = Vacuum permittivity

Since the change in length (dl) by which the magnetic field moves is equivalent to the perimeter of the circumference and that the electric flow is the rate of change of the electric field by the area, we have to

$B(2\pi r) = \mu_0 \epsilon_0 \frac{d(EA)}{dt}$

Recall that the speed of light is equivalent to

$c^2 = \frac{1}{\mu_0 \epsilon_0}$

Then replacing,

$B(2\pi r) = \frac{1}{C^2} (\pi r^2) \frac{d(E)}{dt}$

$B = \frac{r}{2C^2} \frac{dE}{dt}$

Our values are given as

$dE = 2150N/C$

$dt = 5s$

$C = 3*10^8m/s$

$D = 0.440m \rightarrow r = 0.220m$

Replacing we have,

$B = \frac{r}{2C^2} \frac{dE}{dt}$

$B = \frac{0.220}{2(3*10^8)^2} \frac{2150}{5}$

$B =5.25*10^{-16}T$

Therefore the magnetic field around this circular area is $B =5.25*10^{-16}T$

3 0

3 years ago

A 15x10^-6c charge is placed at the origin and a 9x10^-6C charge is placed on the x-axis at x=1.00m. where, on the x-axis is the

Harlamova29_29 [7]

The Electric field is zero at a distance 2.492 cm from the origin.

Let A be point where the charge $15\times10^-6$ C is placed which is the origin.

Let B be the point where the charge $9\times 10^-6$ C is placed. Given that B is at a distance 1 cm from the origin.

Both the charges are positive. But charge at origin is greater than that of B. So we can conclude that the point on the x-axis where the electric field = 0 is after B on x - axis.

i.e., at distance 'x' from B.

Using Coulomb's law, $\frac{kQ_A^2}{d_A^2} = \frac{kQ_B^2}{d_B^2}$ ,