We can use Newton II here (where F=m*a), that F is the net (or resultant) force on the object, m is the mass of the object and a is the acceleration the object experiences.
This means, in this case there would be no friction and absolutely no other force which gives a component in the plane of motion, only then can you assume that F=804N.
Now using F= m*a
804 = 51.7*a
Therefore a = 804/51.7 = 15.55 m/s²
Answer:
1 million dollars once
Explanation:
Well, both would be nice. In total, you will get more from the million dollars because it takes over 2,739 years to get 1 million dollars worth of pennies.(if you get 1 a day that is)
Answer:
40.0⁰
Explanation:
The formula for calculating the magnetic flux is expressed as:
where:
is the magnetic flux
B is the magnetic field
A is the cross sectional area
is the angle that the normal to the plane of the loop make with the direction of the magnetic field.
Given
A = 0.250m²
B = 0.020T
= 3.83 × 10⁻³T· m²
3.83 × 10⁻³ = 0.020*0.250cosθ
3.83 × 10⁻³ = 0.005cosθ
cosθ = 0.00383/0.005
cosθ = 0.766
θ = cos⁻¹0.766
θ = 40.0⁰
<em>Hence the angle normal to the plane of the loop make with the direction of the magnetic field is 40.0⁰</em>
The electric current passing through the bulb would be 3.3A
<u>Explanation:</u>
Given:
Electric charge, q = 800C
Time, t = 4 min
= 4 X 60 sec
= 240 sec
Electric current, I = ?
We know,

On substituting the value we get:

Thus, the electric current passing through the bulb would be 3.3A