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Ratling [72]
2 years ago
8

I NEED HELP :) ty.............

Physics
1 answer:
Black_prince [1.1K]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The answer to your question is given below

Explanation:

From the question given above, we can see that the wave with a higher frequency has a shorter wavelength while that with a lower frequency has a longer wavelength. This is so because the frequency and wavelength of a wave has inverse relationship. This can further be explained by using the following formula:

Velocity = wavelength x frequency

Divide both side by wavelength

Frequency = Velocity /wavelength

Keeping the velocity constant, we have:

Frequency ∝ 1 / wavelength

From the above illustration, we can see clearly that the frequency and wavelength are in inverse relationship. This implies that the higher the frequency, the shorter the wavelength and the shorter the frequency, the higher the wavelength.

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EASY BRAINLIEST PLEASE HELP!!
Rudiy27

Answer:

I think the awnser is B (but don't qoute me on that)   if its right then yay but if its wrong im sorry

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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An 800 N man climbs 5 m up a ladder. How much gravitational potential energy does he gain?
Artemon [7]

Answer:

4000J

Explanation:

Given parameters:

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Unknown:

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5 0
3 years ago
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Ainat [17]
When  t=2, the ball has fallen     d(2) = 16 (2²) = 64 feet .

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That's what choice-C says.        
6 0
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