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TiliK225 [7]
3 years ago
11

We reduce friction in machines? why​

Physics
2 answers:
Alexxandr [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Because it causes a lot of wear and tear in machine parts that move against each other. It erodes the surfaces and destroys their symmetries

Explanation:

kvv77 [185]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

friction reduces the efficiency of machines, thus we must reduce the friction force that is acting upon it.

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The third (left hand corner) since the x and y are both negative.
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3 years ago
What is the car's speed at the bottom of the dip?The passengers in a roller coaster car feel 50% heavier thantheir true weight a
Rashid [163]

Answer:

v = 14 m/s

Explanation:

given,

radius of dip = 40 m

The passengers in a roller coaster car feel 50% heavier than their true weight.

Apparent weight

A = W + \dfrac{W}{2}

A =\dfrac{3W}{2}

A =\dfrac{3mg}{2}

When the car is at the bottom,  the weight will be acting downwards and the centripetal force will also be acting downward where as Normal force which is apparent weight will be acting in upward direction.

now,

N = m g + \dfrac{mv^2}{r}

\dfrac{3mg}{2} = m g + \dfrac{mv^2}{r}

\dfrac{mg}{2} = \dfrac{mv^2}{r}

v = \sqrt{\dfrac{rg}{2}}

v = \sqrt{\dfrac{40\times 9.8}{2}}

v = 14 m/s

8 0
2 years ago
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frutty [35]

Answer:

The final graph

Explanation:

The graph that curves downwards is negative acceleration. While the position decreases the slop increases.

8 0
2 years ago
A baseball, which has a mass of 0.685 kg., is moving with a velocity of 38.0 m/s when it contacts the baseball bat duringwhich t
Evgen [1.6K]

Answers:

a) 65.075 kgm/s

b) 10.526 s

c) 61.82 N

Explanation:

<h3>a) Impulse delivered to the ball</h3>

According to the Impulse-Momentum theorem we have the following:

I=\Delta p=p_{2}-p_{1} (1)

Where:

I is the impulse

\Delta p is the change in momentum

p_{2}=mV_{2} is the final momentum of the ball with mass m=0.685 kg and final velocity (to the right) V_{2}=57 m/s

p_{1}=mV_{1} is the initial momentum of the ball with initial velocity (to the left) V_{1}=-38 m/s

So:

I=\Delta p=mV_{2}-mV_{1} (2)

I=\Delta p=m(V_{2}-V_{1}) (3)

I=\Delta p=0.685 kg (57 m/s-(-38 m/s)) (4)

I=\Delta p=65.075 kg m/s (5)

<h3>b) Time </h3>

This time can be calculated by the following equations, taking into account the ball undergoes a maximum compression of approximately 1.0 cm=0.01 m:

V_{2}=V_{1}+at (6)

V_{2}^{2}=V_{1}^{2}+2ad (7)

Where:

a is the acceleration

d=0.01 m is the length the ball was compressed

t is the time

Finding a from (7):

a=\frac{V_{2}^{2}-V_{1}^{2}}{2d} (8)

a=\frac{(57 m/s)^{2}-(-38 m/s)^{2}}{2(0.01 m)} (9)

a=90.25 m/s^{2} (10)

Substituting (10) in (6):

57 m/s=-38 m/s+(90.25 m/s^{2})t (11)

Finding t:

t=1.052 s (12)

<h3>c) Force applied to the ball by the bat </h3>

According to Newton's second law of motion, the force F is proportional to the variation of momentum  \Delta p in time  \Delta t:

F=\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t} (13)

F=\frac{65.075 kgm/s}{1.052 s} (14)

Finally:

F=61.82 N

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3 years ago
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