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3 years ago

We reduce friction in machines? why

Physics

2 answers:

Alexxandr [17]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Because it causes a lot of wear and tear in machine parts that move against each other. It erodes the surfaces and destroys their symmetries

Explanation:

kvv77 [185]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

friction reduces the efficiency of machines, thus we must reduce the friction force that is acting upon it.

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Fill in the blanks for the following:

storchak [24]

Answer:

a. 4.21 moles

b. 478.6 m/s

c. 1.5 times the root mean square velocity of the nitrogen gas outside the tank

Explanation:

Volume of container = 100.0 L

Temperature = 293 K

pressure = 1 atm = 1.01325 bar

number of moles n = ?

using the gas equation PV = nRT

n = PV/RT

R = 0.08206 L-atm- $mol^{-1}$ $K^{-1}$

Therefore,

n = (1.01325 x 100)/(0.08206 x 293)

n = 101.325/24.04 = 4.21 moles

The equation for root mean square velocity is

Vrms = $\sqrt{\frac{3RT}{M} }$

R = 8.314 J/mol-K

where M is the molar mass of oxygen gas = 31.9 g/mol = 0.0319 kg/mol

Vrms = $\sqrt{\frac{3*8.314*293}{0.0319} }$ = 478.6 m/s

For Nitrogen in thermal equilibrium with the oxygen, the root mean square velocity of the nitrogen will be proportional to the root mean square velocity of the oxygen by the relationship

$\frac{Voxy}{Vnit}$ = $\sqrt{\frac{Mnit}{Moxy} }$

where

Voxy = root mean square velocity of oxygen = 478.6 m/s

Vnit = root mean square velocity of nitrogen = ?

Moxy = Molar mass of oxygen = 31.9 g/mol

Mnit = Molar mass of nitrogen = 14.00 g/mol

$\frac{478.6}{Vnit}$ = $\sqrt{\frac{14.0}{31.9} }$

$\frac{478.6}{Vnit}$ = 0.66

Vnit = 0.66 x 478.6 = 315.876 m/s

the root mean square velocity of the oxygen gas is

478.6/315.876 = 1.5 times the root mean square velocity of the nitrogen gas outside the tank

6 0

2 years ago

Which statement accurately describes a sample of water during parts a and c of the heating curve

vivado [14]

Answer:

A and C is about 12 cm away from each other.

Explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Bare free charges do not remain stationary when close together. To illustrate this, calculate the acceleration of two isolated p

Marta_Voda [28]

Answer:

Acceleration, $a=9.91\times 10^{15}\ m/s^2$

Explanation:

It is given that,

Separation between the protons, $r=3.73\ nm=3.73\times 10^{-9}\ m$

Charge on protons, $q=1.6\times 10^{-19}\ C$

Mass of protons, $m=1.67\times 10^{-27}\ kg$

We need to find the acceleration of two isolated protons. It can be calculated by equating electric force between protons and force due to motion as :

$ma=\dfrac{kq^2}{r^2}$

$a=\dfrac{kq^2}{mr^2}$

$a=\dfrac{9\times 10^9\times (1.6\times 10^{-19})^2}{1.67\times 10^{-27}\times (3.73\times 10^{-9})^2}$

$a=9.91\times 10^{15}\ m/s^2$

So, the acceleration of two isolated protons is $9.91\times 10^{15}\ m/s^2$ . Hence, this is the required solution.

3 0

3 years ago

Four students made a graphic organizer describing the parts of the atom.

Nikitich [7]

Answer:

I believe the answer is D.

Explanation:

Protons are found inside the nucleus so are neutrons. Electrons are found outside the nucleus.

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

An office heater puts out 2050 btus of energy in the form of heat per hour. given that 1 btus =1.055 kj, how many megajoules of

ivolga24 [154]

Assuming continuous operation (24/7), we can say that

Energy produced : Energy per hour * 24 (number of hours in a day) - 365 (number of days in a year.

Energy per hour: 2050 * 1.055 = 2162.75 kg.

So, we proceed to calculate the results

E: 2162.75 * 24 * 365 = 18,945,690 kj per year.

Now, we transform kj to megajoule, remembering that kilo is 10*3 and mega is 1'*6, so we divide the result by 1,000 in order to get the results in megajoules, and the answer would be:

18,945.69 megajoules can be produced per year.

4 0

3 years ago

We reduce friction in machines? why​

We reduce friction in machines? why