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Crazy boy [7]
2 years ago
7

If a permanent magnet picks up a steel paper clip, the paper clip also

Physics
2 answers:
kiruha [24]2 years ago
6 0

I think it is

C. An interaction between electricity and magnetism produces an

electromagnet, while a permanent magnet induces the paper clip's

magnetic field

Ksivusya [100]2 years ago
4 0
I think the answer is C
Hope this helps you have a great night!!
You might be interested in
A ball is tossed with enough speed straight up so that it is in the air several seconds. (a) What is the velocity of the ball wh
irina1246 [14]

(a) Zero

When the ball reaches its highest point, the direction of motion of the ball reverses (from upward to downward). This means that the velocity is changing sign: this also means that at that moment, the velocity must be zero.

This can be also understood in terms of conservation of energy: when the ball is tossed up, initially it has kinetic energy

K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where m is the ball's mass and v is the initial speed. As it goes up, this kinetic energy is converted into potential energy, and when the ball reaches the highest point, all the kinetic energy has been converted into potential energy:

U=mgh

where g is the gravitational acceleration and h is the height of the ball at highest point. At that point, therefore, the potential energy is maximum, while the kinetic energy is zero, and so the velocity is also zero.

(b) 9.8 m/s upward

We can find the velocity of the ball 1 s before reaching its highest point by using the equation:

a=\frac{v-u}{t}

where

a = g = -9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration due to gravity, which is negative since it points downward

v = 0 is the final velocity (at the highest point)

u is the initial velocity

t = 1 s is the time interval

Solving for u, we find

u=v-at = 0 -(-9.8 m/s^2)(1 s)= +9.8 m/s

and the positive sign means it points upward.

(c) -9.8 m/s

The change in velocity during the 1-s interval is given by

\Delta v = v -u

where

v = 0 is the final velocity (at the highest point)

u = 9.8 m/s is the initial velocity

Substituting, we find

\Delta v = 0 - (+9.8 m/s)=-9.8 m/s

(d) 9.8 m/s downward

We can find the velocity of the ball 1 s after reaching its highest point by using again the equation:

a=\frac{v-u}{t}

where this time we have

a = g = -9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration due to gravity, still negative

v  is the final velocity (1 s after reaching the highest point)

u = 0 is the initial velocity (at the highest point)

t = 1 s is the time interval

Solving for v, we find

v = u+at = 0 +(-9.8 m/s^2)(1 s)= -9.8 m/s

and the negative sign means it points downward.

(e) -9.8 m/s

The change in velocity during the 1-s interval is given by

\Delta v = v -u

where here we have

v = -9.8 m/s is the final velocity (1 s after reaching the highest point)

u = 0 is the initial velocity (at the highest point)

Substituting, we find

\Delta v = -9.8 m/s - 0=-9.8 m/s

(f) -19.6 m/s

The change in velocity during the overall 2-s interval is given by

\Delta v = v -u

where in this case we have:

v = -9.8 m/s is the final velocity (1 s after reaching the highest point)

u = +9.8 m/s is the initial velocity (1 s before reaching the highest point)

Substituting, we find

\Delta v = -9.8 m/s - (+9.8 m/s)=-19.6 m/s

(g) -9.8 m/s^2

There is always one force acting on the ball during the motion: the force of gravity, which is given by

F=mg

where

m is the mass of the ball

g = -9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration due to gravity

According to Newton's second law, the resultant of the forces acting on the body is equal to the product of mass and acceleration (a), so

mg = ma

which means that the acceleration is

a= g = -9.8 m/s^2

and the negative sign means it points downward.

7 0
3 years ago
Electricity costs 6 cents per kilowatt hour. In one month one home uses one megawatt hour of electricity. How much will the elec
Luda [366]

Answer:

Cost of 1000  kilowatt hour = 6000 cents

Explanation:

Given that

Electricity cost is 6 cents per kilowatt hour.

And we have to found out the cost for one megawatt hour

We know that

1 kilowatt = 1000 watt

1 megawatt = = 1000000 watt

1 megawatt = 1000 kilowatt

1 megawatt hour = 1000 kilowatt hour  

Given that cost of 1 kilowatt hour = 6 cents

So the cost of 1000  kilowatt hour = 6 x 1000 cents

Cost of 1000  kilowatt hour = 6000 cents

3 0
3 years ago
Cart 1 of mass m is traveling with speed 2vo in the +x-direction when it has an elastic collision with cart 2 of
iogann1982 [59]

Answer:

Explanation:

Momentum conservation

m2v_0+2mv_0=mv_1+2mv_2 \quad (1/m) \quad 4v_0=v_1+2v_2\\

Kinetic energy conservation

\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}m(2v_0)^2+\frac{1}{2}2mv_0^2=\frac{1}{2}mv_1^2+\frac{1}{2}2mv_2^2 \quad (1/m) \quad 6v_0^2=v_1^2+2v_2^2

Solve the system

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is an advantage of asexual reproduction compared to sexual reproduction?
azamat

Answer:

Asexual reproduction requires less energy and will produce more offspring over time

Explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Block A of mass M is on a horizontal surface of negligible friction. An identical block B is attached to block A by a light stri
miv72 [106K]

Answer:

T’= 4/3 T  

The new tension is 4/3 = 1.33 of the previous tension the answer e

Explanation:

For this problem let's use Newton's second law applied to each body

Body A

X axis

      T = m_A a

Axis y

     N- W_A = 0

Body B

Vertical axis

     W_B - T = m_B a

In the reference system we have selected the direction to the right as positive, therefore the downward movement is also positive. The acceleration of the two bodies must be the same so that the rope cannot tension

We write the equations

    T = m_A a

    W_B –T = M_B a

We solve this system of equations

     m_B g = (m_A + m_B) a

    a = m_B / (m_A + m_B) g

In this initial case

     m_A = M

     m_B = M

     a = M / (1 + 1) M g

     a = ½ g

Let's find the tension

    T = m_A a

    T = M ½ g

    T = ½ M g

Now we change the mass of the second block

    m_B = 2M

    a = 2M / (1 + 2) M g

    a = 2/3 g

We seek tension for this case

    T’= m_A a

    T’= M 2/3 g

   

Let's look for the relationship between the tensions of the two cases

   T’/ T = 2/3 M g / (½ M g)

   T’/ T = 4/3

   T’= 4/3 T

The new tension is 4/3 = 1.33 of the previous tension the answer  e

4 0
3 years ago
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