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Lerok [7]
3 years ago
5

If you set up set up your account to use a security key, can you still get in without having the physical key ?

Physics
1 answer:
butalik [34]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

yes \\

have a nice day T_T

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An RLC circuit has a resistance of 200 Ω and an inductance of 15 mH. Its oscillation frequency is 7000 Hz. At time t = 0, the cu
MArishka [77]

Answer: 2.13 × 10^-4 A

Explanation:

Given that the RLC circuit has a resistance R = 200 Ω and an inductance L = 15 mH.

Its oscillation frequency F = 7000 Hz

The initial current I = 25 mA = 25/1000 or 25 × 10^-3 A

Since there is no charge on the capacitor, the current after complete 5 circle will be achieved by using the formula in the attached file.

Please find the attached file for the remaining explanation for the solution.

8 0
3 years ago
Cart 1 has an initial velocity and hits cart 2 which is stationary. after a perfectly inelastic collision, the combined carts ar
Tomtit [17]

Option(a)  the mass of cart 2 is twice that of the mass of cart 1 is the right answer.

The mass of cart 2 is twice that of the mass of cart 1  is correct about the mass of cart 2.

Let's demonstrate the issue using variables:

Let,

m1=mass of cart 1

m2=mass of cart 2

v1 = velocity of cart 1 before collision

v2 = velocity of cart 2 before collision

v' = velocity of the carts after collision

Using the conservation of momentum for perfectly inelastic collisions:

m1v1 + m2v2 = (m1 + m2)v'

v2 = 0 because it is stationary

v' = 1/3*v1

m1v1 = (m1+m2)(1/3)(v1)

m1 = 1/3*m1 + 1/3*m2

1/3*m2 = m1 - 1/3*m1

1/3*m2 = 2/3*m1

m2 = 2m1

From this we can conclude that the mass of cart 2 is twice that of the mass of cart 1.

To learn more about inelastic collision visit:

brainly.com/question/14521843

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4 0
2 years ago
The standard wave format for any wave is a (transverse a longitudinal an electromagnetic) wave. When depicting a (transverse a l
Alex17521 [72]
<span>Very wild guess at this one, since I've no idea what "standard wave format" means. First gap would be TRANSVERSE. Second gap could be LONGITUDINAL, or SOUND. Third gap could be ELECTROMAGNETIC (the two possible waves being the ELECTRIC wave and the MAGNETIC wave). http://perendis.webs.com</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Where is the deepest part of the ocean
Mariana [72]

Answer:

Trenches are the deepest part of the oceans, narrow and long depressions on the sea floor. One good example is the Mariana Trench, the deepest part of the ocean

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
A uniform rod is 2. 0 m long and has mass 15 kg. What is most nearly the rod's mass moment of inertia?
trapecia [35]

The rod's mass moment of inertia is 5kgm².

<h3>Moment of Inertia:</h3>

The "sum of the product of mass" of each particle with the "square of its distance from the axis of rotation" is the formula for the moment of inertia.

The Parallel axis Theorem can be used to compute the moment of inertia about the end of the rod directly or to derive it from the center of mass expression. I = kg m². We can use the equation for I of a cylinder around its end if the thickness is not insignificant.

If we look at the rod we can assume that it is uniform. Therefore the linear density will remain constant and we have;

or = M / L = dm / dl

dm = (M / L) dl

I =  \int\limits^M_0 {r^2} \, dm

I = \int\limits^\frac{L}{2} _\frac{-L}{2}  {I^2 (M/L)} \, dl

Here the variable of the integration is the length (dl). The limits have changed from M to the required fraction of L.

I = \int\limits^\frac{L}{2} _\frac{-L}{2}  {I^2 (M/L)} \, dl

I = \frac{M}3L}[(\frac{L^3}{2^3}   - \frac{-L^3}{2^3} )]\\\\I = \frac{1}{12}ML^2

Mass of the rod = 15 kg

Length of the rod = 2.0 m

Moment of Inertia, I = \frac{1}{12}15 (2)^2

                               = 5 kgm²

Therefore, the moment of inertia is 5kgm².

Learn more about moment of inertia here:

brainly.com/question/14119750

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4 0
2 years ago
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