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2 years ago

What amount of energy is needed for an electron to jump from n = 1 to n = 4?

Physics

1 answer:

liberstina [14]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

$E=2.04\times 10^{-18}\ J$

Explanation:

We need to find the energy for an electron to jump from n = 1 to n = 4.

The energy in transition from 1 state to another is given by :

$E=\dfrac{-2.18\times 10^{-18}}{n^2}\ J$

The difference in energy for n = 1 to n = 4 is:

$E=-2.18\times 10^{-18}\times (\dfrac{1}{4^2}-1)\\\\E=2.04\times 10^{-18}\ J$

So, the required energy is equal to $2.04\times 10^{-18}\ J$ .

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Define unit aland how many types of unit are there . Name them?

Lana71 [14]

Answer:

7. They arethe meter (m), the kilogram (kg), the second (s), the kelvin (K), the ampere (A), the mole (mol), and the candela (cd)

Explanation:

7. They arethe meter (m), the kilogram (kg), the second (s), the kelvin (K), the ampere (A), the mole (mol), and the candela (cd)

4 0

2 years ago

Consider a small frictionless puck perched at the top of a xed sphere of radius R. If the puck is given a tiny nudge so that it

MakcuM [25]

Answer:

Explanation:

Let the vertical height by which it descends be h . Let it acquire velocity of v .

1/2 mv² = mgh

v² = 2gh

As it leaves the surface of sphere , reaction force of surface R = 0 , so

centripetal force = mg cosθ where θ is the angular displacement from the vertex .

mv² / r = mg cosθ

(m/r )x 2gh = mg cosθ

2h / r = cosθ

cosθ = (r-h) / r

2h / r = r-h / r

2h = r-h

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5 0

2 years ago

Aloop of wire of area 71 cm^2 is placed with its plane parallel to a 16 mt magnetic field. the loop is then rotated so that its

kkurt [141]

Answer:

Approximately 1.62 × 10⁻⁴ V.

Explanation:

The average EMF in the coil is equal to

$\displaystyle \frac{\text{Final Magnetic Flux} - \text{Initial Magnetic Flux}}{2}$ ,

Why does this formula work?

By Faraday's Law of Induction, the EMF $\epsilon$ induced in a coil (one loop) is equal to the rate of change in the magnetic flux $\Phi$ through the coil.

$\displaystyle \epsilon(t) = \frac{d}{dt}(\Phi(t))$ .

Finding the average EMF in the coil is similar to finding the average velocity.

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt$ .

However, by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, integration reverts the action of differentiation. That is:

$\displaystyle \int_0^{t} \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \int_0^{t} \frac{d}{dt}\Phi(t)\cdot dt = \Phi(t) - \Phi(0)$ .

Hence the equation

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \frac{\Phi(t)- \Phi(0)}{t}$ .

Note that information about the constant term in the original function will be lost. However, since this integral is a definite one, the constant term in $\Phi(t)$ won't matter.

Apply this formula to this question. Note that $\Phi$ , the magnetic flux through the coil, can be calculated with the equation

$\Phi = B \cdot A \cdot N \; \sin{\theta}$ .

For this question,

$B = \rm 16\; mT = 16\times 10^{-3}\; T$ is the strength of the magnetic field.
$A = \rm 71\; cm^{2} = 71\times \left(10^{-2}\right)^2 \; m^{2}$ is the area of the coil.
$N = 1$ is the number of loops in the coil.
$\theta$ is the angle between the field lines and the coil.
At $\rm 0\;s$ , the field lines are parallel to the coil, $\theta = 0^{\circ}$ .
At $\rm 0.7\; s$ , the field lines are perpendicular to the coil, $\displaystyle \theta = 90^{\circ}$ .