In a science fiction movie, when a spaceship explodes the vibrations destroy a nearby spaceship *

observe the figure given carefully volume of water in each vessel is shown arrange them in order of decreasing pressure at the b

mihalych1998 [28]

Answer:

See the explanation below

Explanation:

The pressure is defined as the product of the density of the liquid by the gravitational acceleration by the height, and can be easily calculated by means of the following equation.

$P=Ro*g*h$

where:

Ro = density of the fluid [kg/m³]

g = gravity acceleration = 9.81 [m/s²]

h = elevation [m]

In this way we can understand that the greater pressure is achieved by means of the height of the liquid, that is, as long as the fluid has more height, greater pressure will be achieved at the bottom.

Therefore in order of decreasing will be

The largest pressure with the largest height of the liquid, container B. The next is obtained with container D, the next with container A and the lowest pressure with container C.

The pressure decreases as we go from the container B - D - A - C

5 0

3 years ago

A bottle lying on the windowsill falls off and takes 4.95 seconds to reach the ground. The distance from the windowsill to the g

mr Goodwill [35]

The distance an object falls from rest through gravity is

   D = (1/2) (g) (t²)

Distance = (1/2 acceleration of gravity) x (square of the falling time)

We want to see how the time will be affected
if ' D ' doesn't change but ' g ' does.
So I'm going to start by rearranging the equation
to solve for ' t '.

D = (1/2) (g) (t²)

Multiply each side by 2 :    2 D =      g t²

Divide each side by ' g ' : 2 D/g = t²

Square root each side: t = √ (2D/g)

Looking at the equation now, we can see what happens
to ' t ' when only ' g ' changes:

-- ' g ' is in the denominator; so bigger 'g' ==> shorter 't'
         and smaller 'g' ==> longer 't' .

-- They don't change by the same factor, because 1/g is inside
the square root. So 't' changes the same amount as √1/g does.

Gravity on the surface of the moon is roughly 1/6 the value
of gravity on the surface of the Earth.

So we expect ' t ' to increase by √6 = 2.45 times.

It would take the same bottle (2.45 x 4.95) = 12.12 seconds
to roll off the same window sill and fall 120 meters down to the
surface of the Moon.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A particle has a charge of q = +4.9 μC and is located at the origin. As the drawing shows, an electric field of Ex = +242 N/C ex

irina1246 [14]

a)

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3}N$ (+x axis)

$F_{B_x}=0$

$F_{B_y}=0$

b)

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N$ (+x axis)

$F_{B_x}=0$

$F_{B_y}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3}N$ (+z axis)

c)

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N$ (+x axis)

$F_{B_x}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N$ (+y axis)

$F_{B_y}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3}N$ (-x axis)

Explanation:

a)

The electric force exerted on a charged particle is given by

$F=qE$

where

q is the charge

E is the electric field

For a positive charge, the direction of the force is the same as the electric field.

In this problem:

$q=+4.9\mu C=+4.9\cdot 10^{-6}C$ is the charge

$E_x=+242 N/C$ is the electric field, along the x-direction

So the electric force (along the x-direction) is:

$F_{E_x}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(242)=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N$

towards positive x-direction.

The magnetic force instead is given by

$F=qvB sin \theta$

where

q is the charge

v is the velocity of the charge

B is the magnetic field

$\theta$ is the angle between the directions of v and B

Here the charge is stationary: this means $v=0$ , therefore the magnetic force due to each component of the magnetic field is zero.

b)

In this case, the particle is moving along the +x axis.

The magnitude of the electric force does not depend on the speed: therefore, the electric force on the particle here is the same as in part a,

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N$ (towards positive x-direction)

Concerning the magnetic force, we have to analyze the two different fields:

- $B_x$ : this field is parallel to the velocity of the particle, which is moving along the +x axis. Therefore, $\theta=0^{\circ}$ , so the force due to this field is zero.

$- B_y$ : this field is perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, which is moving along the +x axis. Therefore, $\theta=90^{\circ}$ . Therefore, $\theta=90^{\circ}$ , so the force due to this field is: