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trasher [3.6K]
3 years ago
7

Why is an electromagnet used instead of a permanent magnet in magnetic cranes?​

Physics
2 answers:
natali 33 [55]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

an electromagnet is a metal which has the ability to turn into a magnet on passing electricity through it .

But once the electric flow is withdrawn the circuit breaks and it no more behaves like a magnet.

but this is not so in permanent magnets

Explanation:

thus electromagnet is used in magnetic cranes bcoz their magnetism can be controlled conveniently.

ZanzabumX [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

electromagnet is an artificial magnet which works on the electric current.

it has many interesting features which makes it more useful than the ordinary magnets ;

  • it can be demagnetized by stopping the current passing through it.

  • it's poles can be changed by changing the direction of current.

  • it's magnetic strength can be changed.

and electro magnet is used in cranes because big iron materials can be transported to one place to another easily by using its feature of being demagnetized easily.

<em>i hope it helped</em>.....

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If the trend changed toward traditional (pre-World War II) families, how would that affect women’s rights?
LUCKY_DIMON [66]

If the trend changed toward traditional (pre-World War II) families, the women’s rights are employment in manufacturing sector.

<h3>What is World war?</h3>

The war between two countries to take over each other's kingdom using weapons to kill each other.

Before the world war, the army needs armor, weapons, guns and tanks. Their manufacturing is only possible with many workers to work for long hours. If the men are not enough, then women are given opportunities to work with them.

Thus, the women’s rights are employment in manufacturing sector when trend changed traditional families.

Learn more about world war.

brainly.com/question/1449762

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7 0
2 years ago
Which one of the following statements concerning the momentum of a system when the net force acting on the system is equal to ze
Alex

Answer:

D

Explanation:

According to newton's 2nd law rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the force applied on the body. Since, net Force is zero this means momentum did not change or momentum of the body remained constant.

Hence, the system have constant value of momentum. Therefore, option D is correct.

5 0
3 years ago
A disk rotates freely on a vertical axis with an angular velocity of 50 rpm . An identical disk rotates above it in the same dir
True [87]

Answer:

Final angular velocity is 35rpm

Explanation:

Angular velocity is given by the equation:

I1w1i + I2w2i = I1w1f -I2w2f

But the two disks are identical, so Ii =I2

wf can be calculated using

wf = w1i - w2i/2

Given: w1i =50rpm w2i= 30rpm

wf= (50 + 20) / 2

wf= 70/2 = 35rpm

5 0
3 years ago
A 350-kg roller coaster car starts from rest at point A and slides down a frictionless loop-the-loop (Pig. P7.41). (a) How fast
Leona [35]

Answer:

a)Velocity of car =v=16 m/s

b)Force against the track at point B=1.15*10^{4}N

Explanation:

Given mass of roller coaster=m=350 kg

Position of A=Ha=25 m

Position of B=Hb=12 m

Net potential energy=mg(ha-hb)

Net potential energy=(350)(9.80)(25-12)

Net potential energy=44590 J

Using energy conservation

net kinetic energy=net potential energy

(1/2)mv^2=mg(ha-hb)

m=350

velocity=v=16 m/s

b)There two force acting,centripetal force upward and gravity downward.

Thus net force acting will be

Net force=(mv^2/r)-mg

Net force=14933.33-3430

Net force=1.15*10^{4} N

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A child’s toy that is made to shoot ping pong balls consists of a tube, a spring (k = 18 N/m) and a catch for the spring that ca
UkoKoshka [18]

Answer:

The height is 3.1m

Explanation:

Here we have a conservation of energy problem, we have a conversion form eslastic potencial  energy to gravitational potencial energy, so:

E_e=\frac{1}{2}K*x^2\\E_e=\frac{1}{2}18N/m*(9.5*10^{-2}m)^2\\E_e=0.081J

then we have only gravitational potencial energy when the ball is at its maximun height.

E_g=m*g*h

because all the energy was transformed Eg=Ee

h=\frac{0.081J}{9.8m/s^2*m}

searching the web, the mass of a ping pong ball is 2.7 gr in average. so:

h=\frac{0.081J}{9.8m/s^2*(2.7*10^{-3}kg)}\\h=3.1m

6 0
3 years ago
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