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mestny [16]
3 years ago
5

The international space station travels at a distance of about 250 miles above Earth’s surface and at a speed of 17,500 miles pe

r hour. Even though space dust and debris can be tiny, 1 centimeter or less in size with a mass of 10 grams or less, there is always fear that the space station will sustain damage from a collision with a small piece of space debris.
Why should scientists be concerned about a collision with such a tiny object? Use evidence and scientific reasoning to explain your answer.
Physics
1 answer:
Arisa [49]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

In this case we are dealing with the pythagorean theorm involving right angled triangles. This theorm states that a^2 + b^2 = c^2 which means the square of the hypotenuse (side c, opposite the right angle) is equal to the square of the remaining two sides.

In this case we will say that a = 3963 miles which is the radius of the earth. c is equal to the radius of the earth plus the additional altitude of the space station which is 250 miles; therefore, c = 4213 miles. We must now solve for the value b which is equal to how far an astronaut can see to the horizon.

(3963)^2 + b^2 = (4213)^2

b^2 = 2,044,000

b = 1430 miles.

The astronaut can see 1430 miles to the horizon.

Explanation:

:D hopes this Helps

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two identical-looking, large, round balls are placed in front of you. one is filled with feathers and the other is filled with s
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One end of a thin rod is attached to a pivot, about which it can rotate without friction. Air resistance is absent. The rod has
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

6.86 m/s

Explanation:

This problem can be solved by doing the total energy balance, i.e:

initial (KE + PE)  = final (KE + PE). { KE = Kinetic Energy and PE = Potential Energy}

Since the rod comes to a halt at the topmost position, the KE final is 0. Therefore, all the KE initial is changed to PE, i.e, ΔKE = ΔPE.

Now, at the initial position (the rod hanging vertically down), the bottom-most end is given a velocity of v0. The initial angular velocity(ω) of the rod is given by ω = v/r , where v is the velocity of a particle on the rod and r is the distance of this particle from the axis.

Now, taking v = v0 and r = length of the rod(L), we get ω = v0/ 0.8 rad/s

The rotational KE of the rod is given by KE = 0.5Iω², where I is the moment of inertia of the rod about the axis of rotation and this is given by I = 1/3mL², where L is the length of the rod. Therefore, KE = 1/2ω²1/3mL² = 1/6ω²mL². Also, ω = v0/L, hence KE = 1/6m(v0)²

This KE is equal to the change in PE of the rod. Since the rod is uniform, the center of mass of the rod is at its center and is therefore at a distane of L/2 from the axis of rotation in the downward direction and at the final position, it is at a distance of L/2 in the upward direction. Hence ΔPE = mgL/2 + mgL/2 = mgL. (g = 9.8 m/s²)

Now, 1/6m(v0)² = mgL ⇒ v0 = \sqrt{6gL}

Hence, v0 = 6.86 m/s

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6 0
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to 10 Hz. Superimposed on this signal is 60-Hz noise with an amplitude of 0.1 V. It is desired to attenuate the 60-Hz signal to
givi [52]

Answer:

G \sqrt{1 +(\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}} = 1

If we square both sides we got:

G^2 (1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}= 1

We divide both sides by G^2 and we got:

(1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n} = \frac{1}{G^2}

Now we can apply log on both sides and we got:

2n ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c}) = ln (\frac{1}{G^2})

And solving for n we got:

n = \frac{ ln (\frac{1}{G^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c})}

And replacing we got:

n = \frac{ln (\frac{1}{0.1^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{60}{10})}

n = \frac{4.60517}{3.8918}=1.18

And since n needs to be an integer the correct answer would be n=2 for the filter order.

Explanation:

For this case we can use the formula for the Butterworth filter gain given by:

[tec] G = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 +(\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}}}[/tex]

Where:

G represent the transfer function and we want that G =0.1 since the desired signal is less than 10% of it's value

f_c = 10 Hz represent the corner frequency

f= 60 Hz represent the original frequency

n represent the filter order and that's the variable that we need to find

G \sqrt{1 +(\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}} = 1

If we square both sides we got:

G^2 (1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}= 1

We divide both sides by G^2 and we got:

(1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n} = \frac{1}{G^2}

Now we can apply log on both sides and we got:

2n ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c}) = ln (\frac{1}{G^2})

And solving for n we got:

n = \frac{ ln (\frac{1}{G^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c})}

And replacing we got:

n = \frac{ln (\frac{1}{0.1^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{60}{10})}

n = \frac{4.60517}{3.8918}=1.18

And since n needs to be an integer the correct answer would be n=2 for the filter order.

7 0
3 years ago
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