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trasher [3.6K]
3 years ago
15

What is the difference between speed and velocity?

Physics
1 answer:
avanturin [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

speed is the rate of change in distance thus it is scalar physical quantity

while velocity is the rate of change in displacement thus it is a vector physical quantity

Explanation:

vector physical quantity: is a quantity that requires both magnitude and direction to identify

scalar quantity: requires only magnitude to identify.

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A smooth circular hoop with a radius of 0.800 m is placed flat on the floor. A 0.300-kg particle slides around the inside edge o
Marrrta [24]

Answer:

a)11.25 J

b)Number of revolution = 1

Explanation:

Given that

Radius ,r= 0.8 m

m= 0.3 kg

Initial speed ,u= 10 m/s

final speed ,v= 5 m/s

a)

Initial energy

KE_i=\dfrac{1}{2}mu^2

KE_i=\dfrac{1}{2}0.3\times 10^2

KEi= 15 J

Final kinetic energy

KE_f=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2

KE_f=\dfrac{1}{2}0.3\times 5^2

KEf=3.75 J

The  energy transformed from mechanical to internal = 15 - 3.75 J = 11.25 J

b)

The minimum value to complete the circular arc

 V=\sqrt{r.g}

Now by putting the values

V=\sqrt{0.8\times 10}

V= 2.82 m/s

So kinetic energy KE

KE=\dfrac{1}{2}mV^2

KE=\dfrac{1}{2}0.3\times 2.82^2

KE=1.19 J

ΔKE= KEi - KE

ΔKE= 15- 1.19 J

ΔKE=13.80 J

The minimum energy required to complete 2 revolutions = 2 x 11.25 J

                                                                                                    = 22.5 J

Here 22.5 J is greater than 13.8 J.So the particle will complete only one revolution.

Number of revolution = 1

4 0
3 years ago
Find the time it takes for each object to accelerate from 0m/s to 40 m/s when pushed with 100N of force
Ivan

Answer:

40s

Explanation:

Given:

F=100N

V=40m/s and 0

force=change in momenton

F=mv-mu

t=40(100-0)/100

t=40/1

t=40s

4 0
3 years ago
A force gives a 2.0 kg mass an acceleration of 5.0 m/s2 on a level surface. What is the force applied to the mass?
Verdich [7]
So you can use the equation force = mass x acceleration to do 2 x 5 to get 10 N
8 0
3 years ago
If an electromagnetic wave has components Ey = E0 sin(kx - ωt) and Bz = B0 sin(kx - ωt), in what direction is it traveling?
fomenos

Answer:

Its traveling in the +x direction

Explanation:

The E-field is in the +y-direction, and the B-field is in the +z-direction, so it must be moving along the +x-direction, since the E-field, B-field and the direction of moving are all at right angles to each other.

8 0
4 years ago
Projectile motion in two dimensions cannot be determined by breaking the problem into two connected one-dimensional problems.
andriy [413]
The answer I believe is False
8 0
3 years ago
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