1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Mandarinka [93]
3 years ago
10

Why do you think there are so many different kinds of can openers?

Engineering
1 answer:
harkovskaia [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Yes there are different kinds of can openers

Explanation:

Its mainly due to the way it have to be opened. Depending on the mechanism used to cut into the can, the openers are categorized into different types. However, each of these openers have a sharp object that helps cut into the lid of the can, thus, ripping it apart.

You might be interested in
A DC generator turns at 2000 rpm and has an output of 200 V. The armature constant is 0.5 V-min/Wb, and the field constant of th
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

b. 10A

Explanation:

Using the formula, E= k × r×I

200= 0.5 ×2000×0.02×I

200=20×I

Dividing with 20

I = 200/20= 10A

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An aircraft component is fabricated from an aluminum alloy that has a plane strain fracture toughness of 40MPa. It has been dete
Nataly [62]

Answer:

Yes, fracture will occur

Explanation:

Half length of internal crack will be 4mm/2=2mm=0.002m

To find the dimensionless parameter, we use critical stress crack propagation equation

\sigma_c=\frac {K}{Y \sqrt {a\pi}} and making Y the subject

Y=\frac {K}{\sigma_c \sqrt {a\pi}}

Where Y is the dimensionless parameter, a is half length of crack, K is plane strain fracture toughness, \sigma_c  is critical stress required for initiating crack propagation. Substituting the figures given in question we obtain

Y=\frac {K}{\sigma_c \sqrt {a\pi}}= \frac {40}{300\sqrt {(0.002*\pi)}}=1.682

When the maximum internal crack length is 6mm, half the length of internal crack is 6mm/2=3mm=0.003m

\sigma_c=\frac {K}{Y \sqrt {a\pi}}  and making K the subject

K=\sigma_c Y \sqrt {a\pi}  and substituting 260 MPa for \sigma_c  while a is taken as 0.003m and Y is already known

K=260*1.682*\sqrt {0.003*\pi}=42.455 Mpa

Therefore, fracture toughness at critical stress when maximum internal crack is 6mm is 42.455 Mpa and since it’s greater than 40 Mpa, fracture occurs to the material

6 0
3 years ago
On highways, the far left lane is usually the _____. A. emergency lane B. merge lane C. slowest D. fastest
slamgirl [31]

On highways, the far left lane is usually the<u> fastest</u> moving traffic.

Answer: Option D.

<u>Explanation:</u>

For the most part, the right lane of a freeway is for entering and leaving the traffic stream. It is an arranging path, for use toward the start and end of your interstate run. The center paths are for through traffic, and the left path is for passing. On the off chance that you are not passing somebody, try not to be driving in the left path.

Regular practice and most law on United States expressways is that the left path is saved for passing and quicker moving traffic, and that traffic utilizing the left path must respect traffic wishing to surpass.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A pipeline (NPS = 14 in; schedule = 80) has a length of 200 m. Water (15℃) is flowing at 0.16 m3/s. What is the pipe head loss f
dangina [55]

Answer:

Head loss is 1.64

Explanation:

Given data:

Length (L) = 200 m

Discharge (Q) = 0.16 m3/s

According to table of nominal pipe size , for schedule 80 , NPS 14,  pipe has diameter (D)= 12.5 in or 31.8 cm 0.318 m

We know, head\ loss  = \frac{f L V^2}{( 2 g D)}

where, f = Darcy friction factor

V = flow velocity

g = acceleration due to gravity

We know, flow rate Q = A x V

solving for V

V = \frac{Q}{A}

    = \frac{0.16}{\frac{\pi}{4} (0.318)^2} = 2.015 m/s

obtained Darcy friction factor  

calculate Reynold number (Re) ,

Re = \frac{\rho V D}{\mu}

where,\rho = density of water

\mu = Dynamic viscosity of water at 15 degree  C = 0.001 Ns/m2

so reynold number is

Re = \frac{1000\times 2.015\times 0.318}{0.001}

            = 6.4 x 10^5

For Schedule 80 PVC pipes , roughness (e) is  0.0015 mm

Relative roughness (e/D) = 0.0015 / 318 = 0.00005

from Moody diagram, for Re = 640000 and e/D = 0.00005 , Darcy friction factor , f = 0.0126

Therefore head loss is

HL = \frac{0.0126 (200)(2.015)^2}{( 2 \times 9.81 \times 0.318)}

HL = 1.64 m

7 0
3 years ago
Help please if you don't know don't give wrong answer please​
mrs_skeptik [129]

4.75cm * 5.22cm is 24.795cm²

but let's do this with m² instead:

0.0475m * 0.0522m = 0.0024795

now we can compare it with the 49780 much easier.

devide. that's the <u>roughly</u> 20,000,000fold of the plot, but it's still squared, so let's take the root

so the representative fraction is 1:4,480.

the exact value is in the screens

have a nice day:)

6 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • A __ insulated panel consists of a layer of insulating foam between two osb or plywood panels
    14·2 answers
  • Are ocean currents always cold
    10·1 answer
  • A steam power plant operates on an ideal Rankine cycle with two stages of reheat and has a net power output of 120 MW. Steam ent
    14·1 answer
  • . In order to prevent injury from inflating air bags, it is recommended that vehicle occupants sit at least __________ inches aw
    6·2 answers
  • A process involves the removal of oil and other liquid contaminants from metal parts using a heat-treat oven, which has a volume
    10·1 answer
  • Which of the following is not an example of heat generation? a)- Exothermic chemical reaction in a solid b)- Endothermic Chemica
    15·1 answer
  • For a bronze alloy, the stress at which plastic deformation begins is 297 MPa and the modulus of elasticity is 113 GPa. (a) What
    7·1 answer
  • Identify the measurement shown in figure 7 and state in centimeters ​
    5·1 answer
  • List two possible reasons the engine oil could have a strong gasoline smell
    15·1 answer
  • Calculate the number of vacancies per cubic meter for some metal, M, at 783°C. The energy for vacancy formation is 0.95 eV/atom,
    11·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!