Answer:
The p-n junction is a region formed when a p -type semiconductor material is joined to an n-type semiconductor material
Explanation:
The p type semiconductor has holes as its majority charge carriers making it positively charged while the n –types has an overall negative charge. At the junction the holes move towards the electron until such a time when there is a balance in charges from both materials, which leads to the formation of the depletion zone as shown in the attachment below
Answer:
Explanation:
We know that Drag force
Where
is the drag force constant.
A is the projected area.
V is the velocity.
ρ is the density of fluid.
Form the above expression of drag force we can say that drag force depends on the area .So We should need to take care of correct are before finding drag force on body.
Example:
When we place our hand out of the window in a moving car ,we feel a force in the opposite direction and feel like some one trying to pull our hand .This pulling force is nothing but it is drag force.
Answer:
a)
b) attached below
c) type zero system
d) k >
e) The gain K increases above % error as the steady state speed increases
Explanation:
Given data:
Motor voltage = 12 v
steady state speed = 200 rad/s
time taken to reach 63.2% = 1.2 seconds
<u>a) The transfer function of the motor from voltage to speed</u>
let ; be the transfer function of a motor
when i/p = 12v then steady state speed ( k1 ) = 200 rad/s , St ( time constant ) = 1.2 sec
hence the transfer function of the motor from voltage to speed
=
<u>b) draw the block diagram of the system with plant controller and the feedback path </u>
attached below is the remaining part of the detailed solution
c) The system is a type-zero system because the pole at the origin is zero
d) ) k >
Answer:
I know ship has stream line body
It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.
<h3>What is
Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>
The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!
<h3>
What is the explanation for the above?</h3>
as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:
F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!
If F(0) = Cot 0
F(0) = ∝ = 1/0
This is not definitive,
Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.
Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
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